Question 1

Termination of lease of immovable property shall be in the following manner;

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: By written notice. Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, requires that a notice for termination of a lease of immovable property must be in writing.

Question 2

The plaint shall be rejected in the following ground also:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Where plaintiff does not put his signature. Order VII Rule 11 of the CPC lists grounds for rejection of a plaint. A plaint that is not properly signed and verified by the plaintiff or his pleader (as required by Order VI Rule 14 and 15) is a fundamental defect that can lead to its rejection.

Question 3

Whether the pendency of a suit in a foreign court will preclude the courts in India from trying a suit founded on the same cause of action?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No. Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) deals with res sub judice. It specifies that a suit pending in a foreign court does not preclude a court in India from trying a suit founded on the same cause of action. The bar applies only to suits pending in Indian courts.

Question 4

The provisions of Res Judicata also apply to the execution proceedings of a decree:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: True. The principle of Res Judicata, as enshrined in Section 11 of the CPC, applies not only to suits but also to execution proceedings. Any matter directly and substantially in issue in an execution proceeding, which has been heard and finally decided, cannot be re-agitated in subsequent execution proceedings between the same parties.

Question 5

In the case of a public nuisance a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted by:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Two persons having Obtained the written consent of the advocate general. Section 91 of the CPC states that in the case of a public nuisance, a suit for a declaration and injunction may be instituted by the Advocate General, or by two or more persons with the leave of the court. For private individuals to institute such a suit, the written consent of the Advocate General is typically required.

Question 6

In which of the following cases can C set off the claim?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A sues C on a bill of exchange of Rs. 500. C holds a judgement against A for recovery of debt of Rs. 1,000. Order VIII Rule 6 of the CPC deals with set-off. A set-off is permissible when the defendant claims an ascertained sum of money legally recoverable from the plaintiff, and both parties fill the same character as regards the mutual debts. In option (D), C has a judgment (an ascertained sum) against A, and A is suing C, making it a valid case for set-off.

Question 7

Where the defendant is confined in a prison, the summons shall be served:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: By delivery of the summons to the Officer incharge of the prison for service on the defendant. Order V Rule 24 of the CPC specifies that where the defendant is confined in a prison, the summons shall be delivered or sent to the officer in charge of the prison for service on the defendant.

Question 8

Whether the appeal or revisional court can return the plaint under Order 7 Rule 10 CPC after set side the decree:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Order VII Rule 10 of the CPC allows for the return of a plaint to be presented to the proper court. This power can be exercised by an appellate or revisional court as well, especially if it finds that the original court lacked jurisdiction after setting aside a decree.

Question 9

Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear when the suit is called for hearing and where a part of the claim is admitted the court shall:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Dismiss the suit so far as it relates to the remainder. Order IX Rule 8 of the CPC states that if the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not, the court shall dismiss the suit. However, if the defendant admits a part of the claim, the court shall pass a decree upon such admission and dismiss the suit for the remainder.

Question 10

Where the appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree passed exparte the application under Order 9 Rule 13 shall be:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Maintainable. An application under Order IX Rule 13 of the CPC to set aside an ex parte decree is maintainable even if an appeal against the ex parte decree has been preferred and subsequently withdrawn. The remedies are concurrent, provided the appeal was not decided on merits.

Question 11

If sufficient cause is shown by the parties for adjourn the hearing of the case the court shall not adjourn the case more than:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Thrice. Order XVII Rule 1 of the CPC, as amended, stipulates that no adjournment shall be granted more than three times to a party during the hearing of the suit.

Question 12

In every case the examination in Chief Shall be:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: On affidavit. Order XVIII Rule 4 of the CPC, as amended, provides that the examination-in-chief of a witness shall be on affidavit.

Question 13

Where a suit abates or dismissed under Order 22 of CPC on the same cause of action:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No fresh suit shall be brought. Order XXII Rule 9 of the CPC states that where a suit abates or is dismissed under this Order, no fresh suit shall be brought on the same cause of action.

Question 14

Whether a minor on attaining majority may, if a sole plaintiff, apply that a suit instituted in his name by his next friend be dismissed on the ground that it was unreasonable or improper:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Order XXXII Rule 12 of the CPC allows a minor plaintiff, on attaining majority, to apply to the court to have the suit dismissed on the ground that it was instituted without his knowledge or consent, or that it was unreasonable or improper.

Question 15

Where any injunction is passed without giving notice to opposite party the court will try to decide the application within:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 30 days. Order XXXIX Rule 3A of the CPC states that where an injunction has been granted without giving notice to the opposite party, the Court shall endeavor to finally dispose of the application within thirty days from the date on which the injunction was granted.

Question 16

Immovable property does not include timber:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: True. Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines 'immovable property' but explicitly excludes standing timber, growing crops, or grass. Therefore, standing timber is not considered immovable property.

Question 17

Under Section 5 of T.P. Act "Living Person" does include company also:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: True. Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines 'transfer of property' as an act by which a living person conveys property. The explanation to this section clarifies that 'living person' includes a company or association or body of individuals, whether incorporated or not.

Question 18

Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may be made orally:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: True. Section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, states that a transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which a writing is not expressly required by law.

Question 19

A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk hundred miles in an hour:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The lease is void. A condition that is impossible to perform makes the transfer void. Walking 100 miles in an hour is an impossible condition, rendering the lease void.

Question 20

Transferee of the part performance has right to protect his possession:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Right. Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, embodies the doctrine of part performance, which grants the transferee in possession a right to protect their possession against the transferor, even if the transfer document is not registered.

Question 21

Which of the following is usufructuary mortgage:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: None of the above. Section 58(d) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines a usufructuary mortgage as one where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee and authorizes him to retain such possession until payment of the mortgage-money, and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property and to appropriate them in lieu of interest, or in payment of the mortgage-money, or partly in lieu of interest and partly in payment of the mortgage-money. None of the given options accurately describe a usufructuary mortgage.

Question 22

A lease of immovable property from year to year or exceeding one year can be made:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Only by a registered instrument. Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, mandates that a lease of immovable property from year to year, or for any term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent, can be made only by a registered instrument.

Question 23

Gift comprising of future property is valid:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Wrong. Section 124 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, states that a gift comprising both existing and future property is void as to the latter. Therefore, a gift of future property is not valid.

Question 24

Universal donee is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Donee is personally liable for all debts to liabilities existing at the time of gift. Section 128 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines a universal donee as a person to whom the donor's whole property is transferred. Such a donee is personally liable for all the debts due by and liabilities of the donor at the time of the gift to the extent of the property comprised therein.

Question 25

Transfer of actionable claim has exaction under section of 130 T.P. Act:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: None of the above policy applies. Section 130(2) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, states that nothing in this section applies to the transfer of a policy of marine or fire insurance or any policy of life insurance. Therefore, options (A) and (B) are exceptions where Section 130 does not apply. Vehicle insurance policy is not explicitly mentioned as an exception. The marked answer (D) 'None of the above policy applies' implies that Section 130 does not apply to any of the policies listed in A, B, C, which is incorrect for C.

Question 26

Whether furniture provided by landlord is defined as accommodation under section 2 of A.C. Act:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Section 2(a) of the Chhattisgarh Accommodation Control Act, 1961, defines 'accommodation' to include any land or building or part of a building, and also includes any furniture supplied by the landlord for use in such building or part of a building.

Question 27

Accommodation which is the property of the Government Accommodation Control Act shall not apply

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: True. Section 3 of the Chhattisgarh Accommodation Control Act, 1961, explicitly states that nothing in this Act shall apply to any accommodation belonging to the Government.

Question 28

Pagree means (as defined in Section 6 of A.C. Act)

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Premium or cash received or claimed in addition to rent. Section 6 of the Chhattisgarh Accommodation Control Act, 1961, prohibits a landlord from claiming or receiving any premium, fine, or other like sum or deposit, or any consideration, in addition to the rent. 'Pagree' refers to such an illegal premium or consideration.

Question 29

Member of the family:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Married daughter. While definitions vary by specific acts, a married daughter is generally considered a member of the family for purposes such as succession to tenancy or bonafide need, especially if she is dependent or residing with the tenant.

Question 30

If any eviction decree is obtained on the basis of compromise than on execution:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Executing court will see whether ground was available or not. Even if an eviction decree is based on a compromise, the executing court has the power and duty to satisfy itself that the compromise was lawful and that a statutory ground for eviction existed, particularly under Rent Control Acts, to prevent circumvention of the law.

Question 31

If not specific place is agreed regarding payment of rent between landlord and tenant then the tenant will pay the rent:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The landlord will come to the tenant and receive. In the absence of a specific agreement, the general rule is that the debtor (tenant) is not bound to seek out the creditor (landlord). It is the duty of the landlord to collect the rent from the tenant at the demised premises or at an agreed place.

Question 32

Plaintiff lives in another city but casually when he comes lives in the suit house with his family:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: It also includes bonafide need of plaintiff. The concept of 'bonafide need' under Rent Control Acts is interpreted broadly. Even if a landlord resides in another city, a genuine requirement for the suit premises for their own use or for their family, including for occasional stays or as a secondary residence, can constitute a bonafide need.

Question 33

Tenant cannot sue against sub-tenant why:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: As no permission taken from landlord. In many jurisdictions, sub-letting without the express written consent of the landlord is prohibited. If the sub-tenancy is unauthorized, the tenant (sub-lessor) may not have legal standing to enforce the sub-tenancy agreement against the sub-tenant, as the sub-tenancy itself might be illegal or voidable due to lack of landlord's consent.

Question 34

If stairs of the house is dismantled as unsafe whether tenant can get any relief under section 38 of the Accommodation Control Act:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Section 38 of the Chhattisgarh Accommodation Control Act, 1961, imposes a duty on the landlord to keep the accommodation in good repair. If the landlord fails to carry out necessary repairs, including rectifying unsafe structures like stairs, the tenant can apply to the Rent Controlling Authority for relief.

Question 35

Who can take cognizance of the offence mentioned, under section 44 of the Accommodation Control Act:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: First Class Magistrate. Section 44 of the Chhattisgarh Accommodation Control Act, 1961, specifies that no Court inferior to that of a Magistrate of the First Class shall try any offence punishable under this Act. Therefore, a First Class Magistrate can take cognizance.

Question 36

Agriculture includes betel leaves and water nuts produce:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Right. The term 'agriculture' in land revenue codes is generally interpreted broadly to include the cultivation of various crops, including horticultural produce like betel leaves and water nuts. 'Right' here implies 'True' or 'Yes'.

Question 37

Rent means as defined in Section 2(1) in C.G. Land Revenue Code:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Money or kind payable on account of land. Section 2(1)(p) of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, defines 'rent' as whatever is lawfully payable, whether in money or in kind or in labour or otherwise, by a Bhumiswami to a Government or by a tenant to his landlord on account of the use or occupation of land held by him.

Question 38

Within how many period a person who lawfully acquired the right in land shall report to the revenue department:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 3 months. Section 109 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, requires any person acquiring a right in any land to report such acquisition to the Patwari within three months from the date of such acquisition.

Question 39

At the end of which month the village patel shall direct the holder of the land to rectify the defective survey mark:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: November. Section 124 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, states that the Patwari shall, at the end of November in each year, examine every survey mark and boundary mark in his charge and report to the Tahsildar those that are in need of repair or reconstruction. The Tahsildar then directs the holder of the land to rectify them.

Question 40

Who can correct the errors in record of rights which the parties admit:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: S.D.O.. Section 115 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, empowers the Sub-Divisional Officer (S.D.O.) to correct any entry in the record-of-rights which he is satisfied has been made fraudulently or through error, either on his own motion or on application by any party, especially if the parties admit the error.

Question 41

When a transfer of land is done by a tribe then who can file application under section 170A of land revenue Code:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: By Revenue Officer. Section 170A of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, deals with transfers by members of aboriginal tribes. While the transferor or any interested person can provide information, the Revenue Officer (Collector or authorized officer) is empowered to initiate inquiry suo motu or on such information and take action.

Question 42

In a partition proceeding before Tahsildar under section 178 land revenue code if question of title is raised before Tahsildar for how many period Tahsildar shall stay the proceeding to file civil suit and get stay:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 3 months. Section 178 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, provides that if a question of title is raised in a partition proceeding, the Tahsildar shall stay the proceedings for three months to enable any party to file a civil suit for the determination of the question.

Question 43

Whether transfer of trees standing on the land is valid:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: It can be transferred with the land. Trees that are not 'standing timber' (i.e., intended to remain rooted and grow) are considered immovable property. When land is transferred, such trees standing on it are generally transferred along with the land as part of the immovable property, unless specifically excluded.

Question 44

The following land includes in Nistar Patrak:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All unoccupied land. Section 234 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, deals with the preparation of Nistar Patrak, which is a record of rights of the villagers in respect of the use of unoccupied land (waste land), forest, trees, water, etc. It primarily concerns unoccupied land.

Question 45

Whether civil court can decide regarding reinstatements of a Bhumiswami improperly dispossessed'u/s 250 of Land Revenue Code:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No. Section 250 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, provides a specific remedy for a Bhumiswami improperly dispossessed of his land, by applying to the Tahsildar. The jurisdiction of civil courts is generally barred in matters where specific remedies are provided under the Land Revenue Code, especially concerning possession and title disputes falling within the exclusive jurisdiction of revenue courts.

Question 46

Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Is an agreement. Section 2(e) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines an agreement as 'Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an agreement'.

Question 47

When, during partition in a family or it is agreed as family arrangement to maintain the mother then his contract is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Valid and enforceable. A family arrangement, including provisions for the maintenance of family members like a mother, is generally considered a valid and enforceable contract, especially when made to settle disputes or ensure family harmony.

Question 48

Non cognizable offence means:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Police officer cannot arrest without warrant. Section 2(l) of the CrPC defines a 'non-cognizable offence' as an offence for which a police officer has no authority to arrest without warrant.

Question 49

Which statement is true:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Summons case means a case which is not warrant case. Section 2(w) of the CrPC defines a 'summons-case' as a case relating to an offence, and not being a 'warrant-case'. A warrant-case is one punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.

Question 50

On an application made by a person apprehending arrest on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence the High Court or the Court of Sessions may under Section 438 CrPC give the direction that:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: In the event of such arrest he shall be released on bail. Section 438 of the CrPC deals with anticipatory bail, empowering the High Court or the Court of Session to direct that in the event of such arrest, the person shall be released on bail.

Question 51

Who can make rules or give special orders from time to time consistent with Cr.PC as to the distribution of business among the subordinate Judicial Magistrate:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Chief Judicial Magistrate. Section 15 of the CrPC empowers the Chief Judicial Magistrate to make rules or give special orders consistent with the Code as to the distribution of business among the Judicial Magistrates subordinate to him.

Question 52

For appointment of a special public prosecutor how many years experience is required as an practising advocate:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 10 years. Section 24(8) of the CrPC states that a person shall be eligible to be appointed as a Special Public Prosecutor only if he has been in practice as an advocate for not less than ten years.

Question 53

A is a magistrate in his presence one murder took place during his morning walk, whether he can arrest the culprit himself:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Section 44 of the CrPC empowers any Magistrate (Executive or Judicial) to arrest or order the arrest of any person who commits an offence in his presence, within his local jurisdiction.

Question 54

Where court has no knowledge about the document or thing to be in the possession of any person? Whether the court can issue search warrant in such condition:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Section 93(1)(c) of the CrPC allows a court to issue a search warrant even when it does not know in whose possession the document or thing is, or when it considers that a general search or inspection is necessary for the purposes of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding.

Question 55

Whether any criminal court can impound any document produced before it:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Section 104 of the CrPC states that any Court may impound any document or thing produced before it. This power is available to all courts, including criminal courts.

Question 56

Only one statement in true amongst the following:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: If any person having sufficient means neglects or refuses to maintain his mother she can apply under section 125 Cr.PC.. Section 125 of the CrPC provides for maintenance of wives, children, and parents. A mother, if unable to maintain herself, can apply for maintenance from her son or daughter who has sufficient means and neglects or refuses to maintain her.

Question 57

The maximum term of imprisonment awardable in a summary trial is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Three months. Section 262(2) of the CrPC states that no sentence of imprisonment exceeding three months shall be passed in the case of any conviction under the Chapter on Summary Trials.

Question 58

On receipt of first information report for commission of an offence the officer incharge of the police station will sent the copy to concern Magistrate under which provision:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Under Section 157 Cr.PC.. Section 157 of the CrPC requires the officer in charge of a police station, on receiving information or otherwise, to send a report of the commission of a cognizable offence to a Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of such offence upon a police report.

Question 59

Whether a person can send fine amount through postal department. Without appearing in the court in some petty offences, if yes under what provision:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes under section 206 Cr.PC.. Section 206 of the CrPC allows a Magistrate to issue a special summons in petty cases, permitting the accused to plead guilty by post or messenger and remit the fine specified in the summons without appearing in court.

Question 60

A is prosecuted for robbery and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to B. Whether he may be charged under section 323, 392 and 394 of IPC:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Section 220 of the CrPC allows for the charging of several offences committed in the same transaction. Robbery (Section 392 IPC) and voluntarily causing hurt (Section 323 IPC) are distinct offences. If hurt is caused during the commission of robbery, it becomes an aggravated form of robbery (Section 394 IPC). A person can be charged with all these offences if they form part of the same transaction.

Question 61

In every criminal trial when the magistrate finds the accused guilty he shall pass the sentence after hearing the accused:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Right without hearing the accused no sentences can be passed. Section 235(2) of the CrPC mandates that if the accused is convicted, the Judge or Magistrate shall hear the accused on the question of sentence before passing sentence. This is a fundamental principle of fair sentencing.

Question 62

A, B and C are charged for robbery and after trial convicted by 1st class Magistrate, thereafter whether for the same fact they can be charged and tried for dacoity:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Barred under section 300 Cr.PC.. Section 300 of the CrPC embodies the principle of double jeopardy. If a person has been tried and convicted or acquitted of an offence, they cannot be tried again for the same offence or for any other offence based on the same facts for which a different charge might have been made.

Question 63

The composition of an offence under section 320 Cr.P.C. shall have the effect of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Acquittal. Section 320(8) of the CrPC states that the composition of an offence under this section shall have the effect of an acquittal of the accused with whom the offence has been compounded.

Question 64

Whether any condition imposed by a magistrate when releasing any person on bail can be setaside or modified? If yes, by whom under which provision:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: By High Court or court of sessions under section 439 Cr.PC. Section 439 of the CrPC grants special powers to the High Court and Court of Session regarding bail, including the power to set aside or modify any condition imposed by a Magistrate when granting bail.

Chhattisgarh Pre 2003

152 Questions Available

Chhattisgarh Pre 2003

152 Questions Available

Question 1: Termination of lease of immovable property shall be in the following manner;

Question 2: The plaint shall be rejected in the following ground also:

Question 3: Whether the pendency of a suit in a foreign court will preclude the courts in India from trying a suit founded on the same cause of action?

Question 4: The provisions of Res Judicata also apply to the execution proceedings of a decree:

Question 5: In the case of a public nuisance a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted by:

Question 6: In which of the following cases can C set off the claim?

Question 7: Where the defendant is confined in a prison, the summons shall be served:

Question 8: Whether the appeal or revisional court can return the plaint under Order 7 Rule 10 CPC after set side the decree:

Question 9: Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear when the suit is called for hearing and where a part of the claim is admitted the court

Question 10: Where the appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree passed exparte the application under Order 9 Rule 13 shall be:

Question 11: If sufficient cause is shown by the parties for adjourn the hearing of the case the court shall not adjourn the case more than:

Question 12: In every case the examination in Chief Shall be:

Question 13: Where a suit abates or dismissed under Order 22 of CPC on the same cause of action:

Question 14: Whether a minor on attaining majority may, if a sole plaintiff, apply that a suit instituted in his name by his next friend be dismissed on the ground

Question 15: Where any injunction is passed without giving notice to opposite party the court will try to decide the application within:

Question 16: Immovable property does not include timber:

Question 17: Under Section 5 of T.P. Act "Living Person" does include company also:

Question 18: Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may be made orally:

Question 19: A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk hundred miles in an hour:

Question 20: Transferee of the part performance has right to protect his possession:

Question 21: Which of the following is usufructuary mortgage:

Question 22: A lease of immovable property from year to year or exceeding one year can be made:

Question 23: Gift comprising of future property is valid:

Question 24: Universal donee is:

Question 25: Transfer of actionable claim has exaction under section of 130 T.P. Act:

Question 26: Whether furniture provided by landlord is defined as accommodation under section 2 of A.C. Act:

Question 27: Accommodation which is the property of the Government Accommodation Control Act shall not apply

Question 28: Pagree means (as defined in Section 6 of A.C. Act)

Question 29: Member of the family:

Question 30: If any eviction decree is obtained on the basis of compromise than on execution:

Question 31: If not specific place is agreed regarding payment of rent between landlord and tenant then the tenant will pay the rent:

Question 32: Plaintiff lives in another city but casually when he comes lives in the suit house with his family:

Question 33: Tenant cannot sue against sub-tenant why:

Question 34: If stairs of the house is dismantled as unsafe whether tenant can get any relief under section 38 of the Accommodation Control Act:

Question 35: Who can take cognizance of the offence mentioned, under section 44 of the Accommodation Control Act:

Question 36: Agriculture includes betel leaves and water nuts produce:

Question 37: Rent means as defined in Section 2(1) in C.G. Land Revenue Code:

Question 38: Within how many period a person who lawfully acquired the right in land shall report to the revenue department:

Question 39: At the end of which month the village patel shall direct the holder of the land to rectify the defective survey mark:

Question 40: Who can correct the errors in record of rights which the parties admit:

Question 41: When a transfer of land is done by a tribe then who can file application under section 170A of land revenue Code:

Question 42: In a partition proceeding before Tahsildar under section 178 land revenue code if question of title is raised before Tahsildar for how many period Tah

Question 43: Whether transfer of trees standing on the land is valid:

Question 44: The following land includes in Nistar Patrak:

Question 45: Whether civil court can decide regarding reinstatements of a Bhumiswami improperly dispossessed'u/s 250 of Land Revenue Code:

Question 46: Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other:

Question 47: When, during partition in a family or it is agreed as family arrangement to maintain the mother then his contract is:

Question 48: Non cognizable offence means:

Question 49: Which statement is true:

Question 50: On an application made by a person apprehending arrest on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence the High Court or the Court of Sess