Question 1

When did Indian Penal Code 1860 come in to force?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 1862. The Indian Penal Code, 1860 was enacted on October 6, 1860, but it came into force on January 1, 1862.

Question 2

Which section of the IPC provides for punishment for subjecting women to cruelty?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 498A. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with the offence of cruelty by husband or relatives of husband.

Question 3

Section 124A of IPC prescribes punishment for:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Sedition. Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines and prescribes punishment for the offence of Sedition.

Question 4

Voyeurism has been criminalized in India by virtue of which amendment to IPC?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 2013. Voyeurism (Section 354C) and Stalking (Section 354D) were introduced into the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, which came into force on April 2, 2013.

Question 5

What is not an offence under IPC?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Marital rape. While bigamy (Section 494), affray (Section 159), and mischief (Section 425) are recognized offences under the IPC, marital rape is not explicitly criminalized as a standalone offence under the IPC, though there are ongoing legal debates and challenges regarding its exception.

Question 6

In order to Constitute theft, what is not an ingredient in IPC?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Common intention. The essential ingredients of theft under Section 378 of the IPC are: (1) dishonest intention to take property, (2) the property must be movable, (3) it should be taken out of the possession of another person, (4) without that person's consent, and (5) there must be a moving of the property. Common intention (Section 34) is a principle of joint liability, not an ingredient of the offence of theft itself.

Question 7

Which of the following statement is not a correct one?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A riot involves minimum of three persons. A riot (Section 146 IPC) requires an unlawful assembly, and an unlawful assembly (Section 141 IPC) requires a minimum of five persons. Therefore, a riot involves a minimum of five persons, not three.

Question 8

Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to do that thing:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Dishonestly. Section 24 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines 'Dishonestly' as doing anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person.

Question 9

Under Section 51 of CPC, which one is not a method to enforce execution of the decree?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: by appointing a commission. Section 51 of the CPC lists modes of execution of decrees, which include delivery of property, attachment and sale, arrest and detention, appointing a receiver, or in any other manner as the nature of the relief may require. Appointing a commission is generally for purposes like examining witnesses or local investigation, not directly for enforcing execution of a decree.

Question 10

Which of the following statement is correct? (1) An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte (2) No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties (3) No appeal shall lie on a question of law

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Both (1) and (2). Statement (1) is correct: An appeal lies from an ex parte decree (Order 43 Rule 1A(2) CPC). Statement (2) is correct: Section 96(3) CPC states that no appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties. Statement (3) is incorrect: Appeals can lie on questions of law, especially in second appeals (Section 100 CPC). Therefore, both (1) and (2) are correct.

Question 11

Under Section 115 of CPC, the High Court has the power of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Revision. Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 specifically deals with the revisional jurisdiction of the High Court.

Question 12

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Service of the summons shall be made by tendering a copy thereof signed by the lawyer.. Service of summons must be signed by the judge or such officer as he appoints, and sealed with the seal of the Court, not by the lawyer (Order 5 Rule 1(3) CPC). Therefore, statement (B) is incorrect.

Question 13

Order XV of CPC talks about:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: disposal of the suit at the first hearing. Order XV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is titled 'Disposal of the Suit at the First Hearing'.

Question 14

An adjournment shall not be granted on the ground:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The pleader of a party is engaged in another court. Order XVII Rule 1 of CPC deals with adjournments. The proviso states that no adjournment shall be granted on the ground that the pleader of a party is engaged in another court.

Question 15

Which is not a decree?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Order of dismissal for default. Section 2(2) of CPC defines 'decree'. It includes rejection of a plaint and determination of any question under Section 144. A conclusive adjudication determining the rights of parties is the core definition. An order of dismissal for default (e.g., for non-appearance) is generally not a decree as it does not adjudicate the rights of the parties on the merits.

Question 16

Section 21 of the CPC deals with

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: pecuniary and Territorial jurisdiction. Section 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with objections to the territorial and pecuniary jurisdiction of courts.

Question 17

A consideration is unlawful:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: both if it is opposed to public policy and if it is immoral. Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if the Court regards it as immoral, or opposed to public policy, among other reasons. Therefore, both conditions make consideration unlawful.

Question 18

A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Bailee. Section 71 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that a person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee.

Question 19

A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety by notice to the creditor:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: as to future transactions. Section 130 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that a continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety, as to future transactions, by notice to the creditor.

Question 20

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Consideration is necessary to create an agency. Section 185 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 explicitly states that no consideration is necessary to create an agency. Therefore, statement (B) is incorrect.

Question 21

Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal, and, secondly under specified circumstances, to do certain other things which are illegal, then

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: the first set of promise is a contract and the second is a void agreement. Section 57 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with reciprocal promises to do things legal, and also other things illegal. It states that the first set of promises (to do legal things) is a contract, but the second set (to do illegal things) is a void agreement.

Question 22

Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made. Section 36 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens, are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made.

Question 23

A proposal cannot be revoked:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: after the communication of its acceptance is complete. Section 5 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that a proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards. Options (A), (B), and (C) are all valid ways a proposal can be revoked or lapse (Section 6).

Question 24

Section 170 of Indian Contract Act deals with:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Particular lien. Section 170 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with the 'Bailee's particular lien'.

Question 25

Which is not a public document?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Documents forming the records of will written by Governor of a State. Section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines public documents. A private will, even if written by a Governor, is not a public document.

Question 26

Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act creates presumption as to documents that are years old.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 30. Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the presumption as to documents thirty years old.

Question 27

How many minimum numbers of witnesses are required to proof any fact?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No particular number of witnesses is required for the proof of any fact. Section 134 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact.

Question 28

From the following which is an exception to section 23 of the Evidence Act?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 126 of the Evidence Act. Section 23 deals with the irrelevance of admissions made 'without prejudice'. Section 126 deals with professional communications, which are also privileged and thus excluded from evidence, serving a similar purpose of protecting certain communications from disclosure.

Question 29

An evidence given by a dumb witness in an open court is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: an oral evidence. Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that evidence given by a dumb witness, in any manner in which they can make it intelligible (e.g., by writing or signs in open court), shall be deemed to be oral evidence.

Question 30

Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions of rape cases is raised by

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 114 A of the Evidence Act. Section 114A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions for rape.

Question 31

Which statement is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Witnesses to character shall not be re-examined.. Section 138 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 allows for re-examination to explain matters referred to in cross-examination. There is no general bar on re-examining character witnesses. Therefore, statement (C) is incorrect.

Question 32

Which of the following statement is correct with respect to an accomplice?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person. Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that an accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person.

Question 33

Tenth schedule of the Constitution provides for:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Disqualification on grounds of defection. The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India contains provisions relating to the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection.

Question 34

Which article makes Hindi in Devnagari Script as the official language of the Union?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 343(1). Article 343(1) of the Constitution of India states that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.

Question 35

Article 243ZE of the Constitution of India provides for

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Metropolitan Planning Committee. Article 243ZE of the Constitution of India deals with the constitution and functions of the Metropolitan Planning Committee.

Question 36

The minimum number of judges required for the purpose of hearing any reference by President of India is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 5. Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India states that the minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be five.

Question 37

The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: One-tenth of the total number of members of the House. Article 100(3) of the Constitution of India states that the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.

Question 38

Which statement is correct as to the President of India?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: He can continue to hold office even after expiration of his term until his successor enters upon his office. Article 56(1)(c) of the Constitution of India states that the President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

Question 39

Which Amendment Act to the Constitution inserted fundamental duties to the Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 42nd. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, inserted Part IVA (Fundamental Duties) into the Constitution of India.

Question 40

The Constitution of India deals with provisions for maternity relief under:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 42. Article 42 of the Constitution of India, a Directive Principle of State Policy, states that the State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.

Question 41

Section 85 of Cr.P.C. does not cover with respect to attached property:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Resale. Section 85 of the Cr.P.C. deals with the release, sale, and restoration of attached property. It does not mention 'resale'.

Question 42

Under Section 142 of Cr.P.C. a Magistrate is empowered to issue:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Injunction pending inquiry. Section 142 of the Cr.P.C. empowers a Magistrate to issue an injunction pending inquiry in cases of disputes concerning immovable property.

Question 43

When the Magistrate may, in his discretion, discharge the accused?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: At any time before the charge has been framed and the complainant is absent on any day fixed for the hearing of the case. Section 249 of the Cr.P.C. allows a Magistrate to discharge the accused in a warrant case instituted otherwise than on a police report if the complainant is absent on any day fixed for the hearing of the case, and the charge has not been framed.

Question 44

Which of the following may not be a particular in record in summary trials as per section 263?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Parentage of the complainant. Section 263 of the Cr.P.C. lists the particulars to be recorded in summary trials. It includes the parentage of the accused, the finding, and the date of termination of proceedings. It does not explicitly require the parentage of the complainant.

Question 45

Which section of Cr.P.C. provides protection against double jeopardy or autrefois convict?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 300. Section 300 of the Cr.P.C. embodies the principle of 'autrefois acquit' and 'autrefois convict' (double jeopardy), stating that a person once convicted or acquitted not to be tried for the same offence.

Question 46

A Court, when it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case, may

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: correct a clerical or arithmetical error. Section 362 of the Cr.P.C. states that no Court, when it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case, shall alter or review the same except to correct a clerical or arithmetical error.

Question 47

Which of the following conviction is appealable?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Conviction in petty cases by court of Session with a sentence of 4 months imprisonment. Section 376(b) of the Cr.P.C. states that no appeal shall lie where a Court of Session passes a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding three months, or fine not exceeding two hundred rupees, or both. A sentence of 4 months imprisonment exceeds the 3-month limit for a Court of Session, making it appealable.

Question 48

Judges in Court of Session are appointed by:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: High Court. Section 9(2) of the Cr.P.C. states that the Sessions Judges and Additional Sessions Judges shall be appointed by the High Court.

Question 49

Police may not arrest without warrant any person:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: who has in his possession with lawful excuse any implement of house-breaking. Section 41(1)(a) of the Cr.P.C. allows arrest without warrant of a person who has in his possession any implement of house-breaking without lawful excuse. If the person has a lawful excuse, they cannot be arrested without a warrant under this provision.

Question 50

A warrant-case means:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years. Section 2(x) of the Cr.P.C. defines a 'warrant-case' as a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.

Question 51

According to section 7 of the Court Fees Act, in suits for maintenance and annuities or other sums payable periodically-according to the value of the subject-matter of the suit; such value shall be deemed to be the amount claimed to be payable for one year.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: ten times. Section 7(ii) of the Court Fees Act, 1870 states that in suits for maintenance and annuities or other sums payable periodically, the amount claimed to be payable for one year shall be multiplied by ten times to determine the value of the subject-matter.

Question 52

Section 17 of the Court Fees Act deals with:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: multifarious suits. Section 17 of the Court Fees Act, 1870 deals with 'multifarious suits' (suits embracing two or more distinct subjects).

Question 53

Which is not an exempted document under section 19 of the Court Fees Act?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Memorandum of appeal. Section 19 of the Court Fees Act, 1870 lists documents exempted from court fees, which include probates and certain powers-of-attorney. Written statements are also generally not subject to court fees. However, a memorandum of appeal is typically subject to court fees.

Question 54

The Court Fees Act 1870 was enforced on:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: March 11, 1870. The Court Fees Act, 1870 received the assent of the Governor-General on 11th March 1870.

Question 55

Which section requires showing/exposing the process fees chargeable for service and execution in English and Vernacular languages in a conspicuous part of each Court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 21 of the Court Fees Act 1870. Section 21 of the Court Fees Act, 1870 requires tables of fees to be prepared and exhibited in English and the vernacular language in a conspicuous part of each Court.

Question 56

Where an application for a review of judgment is admitted and on the rehearing, the Court reverses its former decision on the ground of mistake in law the applicant shall be entitled to get certificate from the Court authorizing him to receive back from the so much of the fee paid on the application

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Collector. Section 15 of the Court Fees Act, 1870 states that in such a scenario, the applicant shall be entitled to a certificate from the Court authorizing him to receive back from the Collector so much of the fee paid.

Question 57

In determining the amount of any compensation awarded under section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, the court shall be guided by the principles specified in section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 73. Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states that in determining the amount of compensation, the court shall be guided by the principles specified in Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Question 58

Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Specific performance of part of contract. Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with 'Specific performance of part of contract'.

Question 59

Rescission may not be adjudged by the court where:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Where the plaintiff has expressly or impliedly ratified the contract. Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 lists cases in which rescission may be refused. One such case is where the plaintiff has expressly or impliedly ratified the contract.

Question 60

Specific relief is granted for enforcing:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Individual civil rights. Section 4 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states that specific relief can be granted only for the purpose of enforcing individual civil rights and not for the mere purpose of enforcing a penal law.

Question 61

Under section 7 of the Specific Relief Act, a person entitled to the possession of specific movable property may recover it in the manner provided by which legislation:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The Code of Civil Procedure. Section 7 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states that a person entitled to the possession of specific movable property may recover it in the manner prescribed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Question 62

Which of the following is a contract that cannot be specifically enforceable?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Both a contract which is in its nature determinable and also dependent on the personal qualifications. Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 lists contracts which cannot be specifically enforced. These include a contract which is in its nature determinable and a contract which is so dependent on the personal qualifications or volition of the parties.

Question 63

Which of the following statement is correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A mere right to sue cannot be transferred. Section 6(e) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 states that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred. Options (A), (C), and (D) describe things that cannot be transferred as per Section 6 of the TPA.

Question 64

Under section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act, transfer of property with a condition restraining alienation is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Void. Section 10 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 states that where property is transferred subject to a condition or limitation absolutely restraining the transferee from parting with or disposing of his interest in the property, the condition or limitation is void.

Chhattisgarh Pre 2016 Re

100 Questions Available

Chhattisgarh Pre 2016 Re

100 Questions Available

Question 1: When did Indian Penal Code 1860 come in to force?

Question 2: Which section of the IPC provides for punishment for subjecting women to cruelty?

Question 3: Section 124A of IPC prescribes punishment for:

Question 4: Voyeurism has been criminalized in India by virtue of which amendment to IPC?

Question 5: What is not an offence under IPC?

Question 6: In order to Constitute theft, what is not an ingredient in IPC?

Question 7: Which of the following statement is not a correct one?

Question 8: Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to do that thing:

Question 9: Under Section 51 of CPC, which one is not a method to enforce execution of the decree?

Question 10: Which of the following statement is correct? (1) An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte (2) No appeal shall lie from a decree passe

Question 11: Under Section 115 of CPC, the High Court has the power of:

Question 12: Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Question 13: Order XV of CPC talks about:

Question 14: An adjournment shall not be granted on the ground:

Question 15: Which is not a decree?

Question 16: Section 21 of the CPC deals with

Question 17: A consideration is unlawful:

Question 18: A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a:

Question 19: A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety by notice to the creditor:

Question 20: Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Question 21: Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal, and, secondly under specified circumstances, to do certain other thi

Question 22: Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens

Question 23: A proposal cannot be revoked:

Question 24: Section 170 of Indian Contract Act deals with:

Question 25: Which is not a public document?

Question 26: Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act creates presumption as to documents that are years old.

Question 27: How many minimum numbers of witnesses are required to proof any fact?

Question 28: From the following which is an exception to section 23 of the Evidence Act?

Question 29: An evidence given by a dumb witness in an open court is

Question 30: Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions of rape cases is raised by

Question 31: Which statement is incorrect?

Question 32: Which of the following statement is correct with respect to an accomplice?

Question 33: Tenth schedule of the Constitution provides for:

Question 34: Which article makes Hindi in Devnagari Script as the official language of the Union?

Question 35: Article 243ZE of the Constitution of India provides for

Question 36: The minimum number of judges required for the purpose of hearing any reference by President of India is

Question 37: The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is?

Question 38: Which statement is correct as to the President of India?

Question 39: Which Amendment Act to the Constitution inserted fundamental duties to the Constitution?

Question 40: The Constitution of India deals with provisions for maternity relief under:

Question 41: Section 85 of Cr.P.C. does not cover with respect to attached property:

Question 42: Under Section 142 of Cr.P.C. a Magistrate is empowered to issue:

Question 43: When the Magistrate may, in his discretion, discharge the accused?

Question 44: Which of the following may not be a particular in record in summary trials as per section 263?

Question 45: Which section of Cr.P.C. provides protection against double jeopardy or autrefois convict?

Question 46: A Court, when it has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case, may

Question 47: Which of the following conviction is appealable?

Question 48: Judges in Court of Session are appointed by:

Question 49: Police may not arrest without warrant any person:

Question 50: A warrant-case means: