Question 1

The amendment in Constitution of India can be made under Article ..........

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 368. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for doing so.

Question 2

Non Cognizable offence means an offence where:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: police officer cannot arrest without warrant. In a non-cognizable offence, a police officer cannot arrest without a warrant and cannot investigate without the order of a Magistrate. This is defined under Section 2(l) of the Cr.P.C.

Question 3

Police officer can be appointed as Asst Public Prosecutor, provided:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: he is not below the rank of Inspector and has not been part of investigation. Section 25(3) of Cr.P.C. states that a police officer shall not be eligible to be appointed as an Assistant Public Prosecutor if he has taken any part in the investigation of the offence with respect to which the accused is being prosecuted, or if he is below the rank of Inspector. Therefore, he must not be below the rank of Inspector and must not have taken part in the investigation.

Question 4

The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C. as security for good behaviour from suspected person can be executed for a period not exceeding:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: one year. Section 109(2) of Cr.P.C. states that the bond for good behaviour from suspected persons shall be for such term, not exceeding one year, as the Magistrate thinks fit.

Question 5

In which of the following cases have the Supreme Court recently directed to upload online copy of FIR within 24 hours of lodging?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Youth Bar Association of India v. Union of India. In Youth Bar Association of India v. Union of India (2016), the Supreme Court directed that FIRs should be uploaded on the police website within 24 hours of their registration, subject to certain exceptions.

Question 6

Provision for legal aid to accused are provided under which of the following sections of Cr.P.C.?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 304. Section 304 of Cr.P.C. deals with legal aid to accused at State expense in certain cases, particularly in sessions trials.

Question 7

Benefits of Plea Bargaining cannot be given to an accused, if he has committed offence where:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: offence relates to children below 14 years of age. Chapter XXIA of Cr.P.C. deals with Plea Bargaining. Section 265A(a) states that plea bargaining is not applicable where the offence affects the socio-economic condition of the country or has been committed against a woman or a child below the age of fourteen years.

Question 8

In summary trial, maximum punishment up to ... can only be imposed.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: three months. Section 262(2) of Cr.P.C. states that in a summary trial, no sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding three months shall be passed.

Question 9

The Bar of taking cognizance after lapse of period of limitation as stated in Section 466(2) of Cr.P.C. does not apply if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding .......... years.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 3. Section 468(2)(c) of Cr.P.C. states that no Court shall take cognizance of an offence after the expiry of the period of limitation if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding three years. This implies that for offences punishable with imprisonment exceeding three years, there is no limitation period.

Question 10

The Indian Penal Code was drafted by:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Lord Macaulay. The Indian Penal Code was drafted by the First Law Commission of India, which was chaired by Lord Macaulay. Lord Macaulay is often directly credited as the primary drafter.

Question 11

Doctrine of mens rea is NOT attracted to which of the following categories of offences?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Strict liability. Mens rea (guilty mind) is a fundamental principle of criminal law, but it is not required for strict liability offences. In strict liability offences, the mere act (actus reus) is sufficient for conviction, regardless of the mental state of the offender.

Question 12

To which of the following is Indian Penal Code not applicable?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: State of J & K. Prior to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Indian Penal Code was not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir. This question likely refers to the historical context before the 2019 changes.

Question 13

Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under ...... years of age.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 7. Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code states that 'Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.' This is known as doli incapax.

Question 14

'A' instigates 'B' to instigate 'C' to murder 'Z'. Accordingly. 'B' instigated 'C' and 'C' committed murder of Z. Who will be liable for Punishment?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: "A', 'B' and 'C'. This is a case of abetment. 'A' abets 'B', and 'B' abets 'C'. 'C' commits the murder. All three, 'A', 'B', and 'C', are liable. 'C' for murder, and 'A' and 'B' for abetment of murder under Section 109 of IPC.

Question 15

A man is said to commit rape if he has sexual intercourse with a women with or without her consent, if her age is below ...... years of age.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 18. Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code defines rape. One of the clauses states that sexual intercourse with a woman without her consent is rape, and if she is under eighteen years of age, her consent is immaterial.

Question 16

The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 has added a new Section 376-D. What does it relate to?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Gang Rape. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, introduced Section 376D, which specifically deals with 'Gang Rape'.

Question 17

In which of the following cases has the constitutional validity of Section 377 Indian Penal Code been upheld by Supreme Court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz Foundation. In Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2013), the Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court's judgment and upheld the constitutional validity of Section 377 IPC, thereby recriminalizing homosexual acts. (Note: This was later overturned by Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India in 2018).

Question 18

What does the recent Supreme Court judgement in Subramanium Swami v. Union of India relate to?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Upholding Section 499 and 500 (criminal defamation). In Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India (2016), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code, which deal with criminal defamation.

Question 19

For committing offence of dacoity under Section 391 IPC, what is the minimum number of persons that are required?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 5. Section 391 of the Indian Penal Code defines dacoity as robbery committed by five or more persons acting conjointly.

Question 20

In which of the following are provisions relating to Injunction mentioned?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 95 read with Order XXXIX. Injunctions in the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) are primarily dealt with under Order XXXIX (Temporary Injunctions) and Section 95 (Compensation for obtaining arrest, attachment or injunction on insufficient grounds).

Question 21

Which of the following properties are not liable to attachment in execution of decree?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Books of Accounts. Section 60(1) of the Civil Procedure Code lists properties liable to attachment. The proviso to Section 60(1) lists properties that are not liable. While not explicitly listed, books of accounts are generally considered necessary for a business or profession and are often exempted, similar to tools of artisans, unlike other financial instruments or land.

Question 22

'Garnishee' is a person who is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: debtor of judgement debtor. A garnishee is a third party who owes money to a judgment debtor or holds property belonging to the judgment debtor. The court can issue a garnishee order to compel the garnishee to pay the money directly to the judgment creditor.

Question 23

Interlocutory order are issued by civil court:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: during pendency of civil proceedings. Interlocutory orders are temporary orders issued by a court during the pendency of a suit or proceeding to maintain the status quo or to ensure that the final judgment is effective.

Question 24

What does Section 80 CPC deal with?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Requirement of notice for institution of suit against Government. Section 80 of the Civil Procedure Code mandates a prior notice of two months before instituting a suit against the Government or a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done by such public officer in his official capacity.

Question 25

Under Civil Procedure Code (as amended in 1999), the number of adjournments are limited to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 3. Order XVII Rule 1 of the Civil Procedure Code, as amended, states that no adjournment shall be granted more than three times to a party during the hearing of the suit.

Question 26

Which of the following is NOT a part of expression "Decree” as defined under Section 2(2) of Civil Procedure Code?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Any order of dismissal for defaults. Section 2(2) of CPC defines 'decree'. It states that a decree 'shall not include any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order, or any order of dismissal for default.' So, an order of dismissal for defaults is explicitly excluded from the definition of a decree.

Question 27

What do the provisions of Section 11 of Civil Procedure Code deal with?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Res judicata. Section 11 of the Civil Procedure Code embodies the doctrine of Res Judicata, which prevents the re-litigation of issues that have already been finally decided by a competent court.

Question 28

What does 'Pauper Suit' mean?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Suit by indigent person. A pauper suit (now referred to as a suit by an indigent person) is a suit filed by a person who is unable to pay the court fees required for instituting a suit. This is covered under Order XXXIII of the CPC.

Question 29

Provision for settlement of dispute outside court has been provided under Section ...... of Civil Procedure Code.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 89. Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for settlement of disputes outside the court, encouraging alternative dispute resolution mechanisms like arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement, or mediation.

Question 30

By whom can the transfer of suit or proceedings from one state to other state be ordered?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Supreme Court. Section 25 of the Civil Procedure Code empowers the Supreme Court to transfer suits, appeals or other proceedings from one High Court to another High Court or from one Civil Court in one State to another Civil Court in any other State.

Question 31

Second Appeal under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code lies before:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: High Court. Section 100 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for a second appeal to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any Court subordinate to the High Court, if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law.

Question 32

The Goods and Service Tax has been introduced by .......... Constitutional Amendment Act.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 101st. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.

Question 33

Select the most appropriate: Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides all persons:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: equality before law and equal protection of law. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution states that 'The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.' Option (3) combines both aspects.

Question 34

The Right to education is provided in Article .... of the Constitution of India.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 21A. The Right to Education was made a fundamental right by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, which inserted Article 21A into the Constitution.

Question 35

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The President of India is bound to accept advice of Council of Minister, tendered after reconsideration.. Article 74(1) of the Constitution, as amended by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, states that the President 'shall act in accordance with such advice' of the Council of Ministers. The proviso allows the President to require reconsideration, but the President 'shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.'

Question 36

Ordinance promulgated by President under Article 123 of the Constitution of India shall cease to operate after ..........

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 6 weeks. Article 123(2)(a) states that an Ordinance 'shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament'.

Question 37

What is the Constitutional significance of Kesavananada Bharati's case for?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: For propounding doctrine of Basic Structure. The landmark judgment in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) propounded the 'Basic Structure Doctrine,' holding that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, but cannot alter its basic structure.

Question 38

The doctrine of 'Full Faith and Credit' is enshrined in Article .......... of the Constitution of India.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 261. Article 261 of the Indian Constitution deals with 'Full faith and credit' to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State.

Question 39

The Chairman of Union Public Service Commission is appointed by:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: President. Article 316(1) of the Constitution states that the Chairman and other members of a Public Service Commission shall be appointed, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, by the President.

Question 40

The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: in manner and grounds as applicable for removal of judge of Supreme Court.. Article 324(5) states that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Question 41

Why is the writ of 'mandamus' issued?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: To direct Public Authority to perform its public duty. The writ of Mandamus (meaning 'we command') is issued by a superior court to a lower court, tribunal, or public authority to perform a public duty that they are legally bound to perform.

Question 42

Which of the following jurisdictions is NOT exercised by High Courts?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Advisory Jurisdiction. Advisory jurisdiction (Article 143) is exclusively exercised by the Supreme Court of India, where the President can seek its opinion on questions of law or fact. High Courts do not have advisory jurisdiction.

Question 43

Which Article of the Constitution of India states that: "This constitution may be called the Constitution of India"?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 393. Article 393 of the Constitution of India states, 'This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.'

Question 44

Provision for Financial emergency are laid down in Article .......... of the Constitution of India.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 360. Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals with provisions relating to Financial Emergency.

Question 45

Which of the following Article(s) cannot be suspended during proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 20 & 21. Article 359 of the Constitution, as amended by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, states that the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a National Emergency.

Question 46

Provision for Administrative Tribunals was added in the Constitution of India by .......... amendment.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 42nd. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, added Part XIVA to the Constitution, which includes Articles 323A (Administrative Tribunals) and 323B (Tribunals for other matters).

Question 47

Which of the following language is NOT a part of Eighth Schedule?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Rajasthani. The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages of India. Nepali, Sanskrit, and Maithili are included. Rajasthani is not currently included in the Eighth Schedule.

Question 48

According to Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, a "Contract" is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: an agreement enforceable by law. Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines a 'contract' as 'an agreement enforceable by law.'

Question 49

In which of the following types of contract, consideration is not necessary?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Agency. Section 185 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that 'No consideration is necessary to create an agency.'

Question 50

'A', a businessman, leaves goods at 'B's house by mistake. 'B' treats the goods as his. Is 'B' liable to pay?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes, 'B' is liable to pay.. This scenario falls under the concept of 'quasi-contract' or unjust enrichment (Sections 71 and 72 of the Indian Contract Act). If 'B' treats the goods as his own, he is bound to pay for them.

Question 51

Contract of Insurance is contract of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Indemnity. A contract of insurance (except life insurance, which is a contract of assurance) is fundamentally a contract of indemnity. The insurer promises to indemnify the insured against a loss.

Question 52

A person appointed by an agent under the authority of Principal is known as:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Sub Agent. Section 191 of the Indian Contract Act defines a 'sub-agent' as a person employed by, and acting under the control of, the original agent in the business of the agency.

Question 53

Del credere agent is a kind of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Mercantile Agent. A del credere agent is a type of mercantile agent who, in addition to selling goods, also guarantees to the principal the solvency of the buyer and the due payment of the price of the goods.

Question 54

A stipulation essential to main purpose of contract, the breach of which gives an aggrieved party right to repudiate the contract is known as:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Condition. In contract law, a 'condition' is a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives the aggrieved party a right to treat the contract as repudiated.

Question 55

A owes B Rs. 10,000. A pays to B, and B accepts Rs. 7000 in full satisfaction of the claim. It amounts to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Remission. This is a case of 'remission' under Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, where the promisee may dispense with or remit, wholly or in part, the performance of the promise made to him, or may accept instead of it any satisfaction which he thinks fit.

Question 56

Amendment in Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 made in 1988 has introduced an important provision relating to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: dishonour of cheque. The Banking, Public Financial Institutions and Negotiable Instruments Laws (Amendment) Act, 1988, introduced Chapter XVII (Sections 138 to 142) into the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, dealing specifically with penalties for dishonour of certain cheques for insufficiency of funds.

Question 57

Which of the following is true about a 'Bank Draft'?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: It is a bill of exchange. A bank draft is essentially a bill of exchange drawn by one branch of a bank on another branch of the same bank, or by a bank on another bank, directing the latter to pay a certain sum of money to a specified person.

Question 58

Which of the following is true about 'Inchoate Instrument'?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: It is an incomplete or blank negotiable instrument. Section 20 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, defines an 'inchoate stamped instrument' as an instrument that is signed and either wholly blank or having an incomplete material part, but intended to be completed as a negotiable instrument.

Question 59

Before initiating criminal proceeding for dishonour of cheque, within how many days of receipt of information about dishonour should the payee of cheque issue a notice?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 30 days. Section 138, proviso (b) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, states that the payee or holder in due course of the cheque must make a demand for the payment of the said amount of money by giving a notice in writing to the drawer of the cheque, within thirty days of the receipt of information from the bank regarding the return of the cheque as unpaid.

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT considered as evidence?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Affidavit. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, 'evidence' includes oral evidence (statements by witnesses) and documentary evidence (documents, including electronic records). An affidavit is generally not considered 'evidence' in itself unless specifically allowed by law or if the deponent is cross-examined on it.

Question 61

Testimony of 'Hostile Witness' is to be:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: considered with caution and be corroborated. The testimony of a hostile witness is not to be rejected outrightly. It can be relied upon to the extent it supports the case of the party calling the witness, but it must be considered with caution and requires corroboration from other independent evidence.

Question 62

Which of the following is true about First Information Report (FIR)?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: It is not a substantive evidence. An FIR (First Information Report) is not substantive evidence. It cannot be used as evidence of the facts stated therein. Its main purpose is to set the criminal law in motion, and it can be used to corroborate or contradict the informant's testimony.

Question 63

Admission is a:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: not a conclusive proof but may operate as estoppel. Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act states that 'Admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels.'

Question 64

In which of the following cases was video conferencing allowed?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Polanski v. Conde Nast Publication. In Polanski v. Conde Nast Publication Ltd. (2005), the House of Lords allowed Roman Polanski to give evidence via video link from France in a libel case, setting a precedent for video conferencing in legal proceedings.

Chhattisgarh pre 2016

100 Questions Available

Chhattisgarh pre 2016

100 Questions Available

Question 1: The amendment in Constitution of India can be made under Article ..........

Question 2: Non Cognizable offence means an offence where:

Question 3: Police officer can be appointed as Asst Public Prosecutor, provided:

Question 4: The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C. as security for good behaviour from suspected person can be executed for a period not exceeding:

Question 5: In which of the following cases have the Supreme Court recently directed to upload online copy of FIR within 24 hours of lodging?

Question 6: Provision for legal aid to accused are provided under which of the following sections of Cr.P.C.?

Question 7: Benefits of Plea Bargaining cannot be given to an accused, if he has committed offence where:

Question 8: In summary trial, maximum punishment up to ... can only be imposed.

Question 9: The Bar of taking cognizance after lapse of period of limitation as stated in Section 466(2) of Cr.P.C. does not apply if the offence is punishable wi

Question 10: The Indian Penal Code was drafted by:

Question 11: Doctrine of mens rea is NOT attracted to which of the following categories of offences?

Question 12: To which of the following is Indian Penal Code not applicable?

Question 13: Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under ...... years of age.

Question 14: 'A' instigates 'B' to instigate 'C' to murder 'Z'. Accordingly. 'B' instigated 'C' and 'C' committed murder of Z. Who will be liable for Punishment?

Question 15: A man is said to commit rape if he has sexual intercourse with a women with or without her consent, if her age is below ...... years of age.

Question 16: The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 has added a new Section 376-D. What does it relate to?

Question 17: In which of the following cases has the constitutional validity of Section 377 Indian Penal Code been upheld by Supreme Court?

Question 18: What does the recent Supreme Court judgement in Subramanium Swami v. Union of India relate to?

Question 19: For committing offence of dacoity under Section 391 IPC, what is the minimum number of persons that are required?

Question 20: In which of the following are provisions relating to Injunction mentioned?

Question 21: Which of the following properties are not liable to attachment in execution of decree?

Question 22: 'Garnishee' is a person who is:

Question 23: Interlocutory order are issued by civil court:

Question 24: What does Section 80 CPC deal with?

Question 25: Under Civil Procedure Code (as amended in 1999), the number of adjournments are limited to:

Question 26: Which of the following is NOT a part of expression "Decree” as defined under Section 2(2) of Civil Procedure Code?

Question 27: What do the provisions of Section 11 of Civil Procedure Code deal with?

Question 28: What does 'Pauper Suit' mean?

Question 29: Provision for settlement of dispute outside court has been provided under Section ...... of Civil Procedure Code.

Question 30: By whom can the transfer of suit or proceedings from one state to other state be ordered?

Question 31: Second Appeal under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code lies before:

Question 32: The Goods and Service Tax has been introduced by .......... Constitutional Amendment Act.

Question 33: Select the most appropriate: Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides all persons:

Question 34: The Right to education is provided in Article .... of the Constitution of India.

Question 35: Which of the following statements is the most appropriate?

Question 36: Ordinance promulgated by President under Article 123 of the Constitution of India shall cease to operate after ..........

Question 37: What is the Constitutional significance of Kesavananada Bharati's case for?

Question 38: The doctrine of 'Full Faith and Credit' is enshrined in Article .......... of the Constitution of India.

Question 39: The Chairman of Union Public Service Commission is appointed by:

Question 40: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office:

Question 41: Why is the writ of 'mandamus' issued?

Question 42: Which of the following jurisdictions is NOT exercised by High Courts?

Question 43: Which Article of the Constitution of India states that: "This constitution may be called the Constitution of India"?

Question 44: Provision for Financial emergency are laid down in Article .......... of the Constitution of India.

Question 45: Which of the following Article(s) cannot be suspended during proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India?

Question 46: Provision for Administrative Tribunals was added in the Constitution of India by .......... amendment.

Question 47: Which of the following language is NOT a part of Eighth Schedule?

Question 48: According to Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, a "Contract" is:

Question 49: In which of the following types of contract, consideration is not necessary?

Question 50: 'A', a businessman, leaves goods at 'B's house by mistake. 'B' treats the goods as his. Is 'B' liable to pay?