Chhattisgarh pre 2017

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100 Questions Available

MCQ
1

Question 1: Which of the following is NOT 'law' within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution of India?

Which of the following is NOT 'law' within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution of India?

A.Ordinance
B.Government Circular
C.Rules
D.Notification
MCQ
2

Question 2: What does the principle of 'Double Jeopardy' mean?

What does the principle of 'Double Jeopardy' mean?

A.No person can be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
B.No person accused of an offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself
C.No person can be convicted for an act which was not an offence when committed
D.No person can be deprived of his life without due process of law
MCQ
3

Question 3: Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides 'Right to minorities to establish and administer educational institution of thei

Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides 'Right to minorities to establish and administer educational institution of their choice'?

A.Article 26
B.Article 17
C.Article 30
D.Article 24
MCQ
4

Question 4: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.Supreme Court has writ jurisdiction.
B.Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction.
C.Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction.
D.Supreme Court has no original jurisdiction.
MCQ
5

Question 5: Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India makes provision for 'Equal justice and free legal aid'?

Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India makes provision for 'Equal justice and free legal aid'?

A.Article 39A
B.Article 44
C.Article 41
D.Article 51
MCQ
6

Question 6: Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure allows police custody for Investigation of accused for a maximum period of ................... days.

Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure allows police custody for Investigation of accused for a maximum period of ................... days.

A.30
B.60
C.90
D.45
MCQ
7

Question 7: What is the bar of taking cognizance after lapse of period of limitation of an offence punishable with imprisonment for term not exceeding one year?

What is the bar of taking cognizance after lapse of period of limitation of an offence punishable with imprisonment for term not exceeding one year?

A.Six months
B.One year
C.Two years
D.Three years
MCQ
8

Question 8: The Power to Remit Sentence can be exercised by:

The Power to Remit Sentence can be exercised by:

A.Supreme Court
B.High Court
C.Appropriate Government
D.President
MCQ
9

Question 9: Under which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure is the requirement of statutory notice before filing suit against government laid

Under which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure is the requirement of statutory notice before filing suit against government laid down?

A.Section 75
B.Section 80
C.Section 14
D.Section 115
MCQ
10

Question 10: What does the recent judgment of the Supreme Court in Union of India v. Diler Singh deal with?

What does the recent judgment of the Supreme Court in Union of India v. Diler Singh deal with?

A.Second appeal
B.Restitution
C.Res Judicata
D.Suit against government
MCQ
11

Question 11: In which section of the Code of Civil Procedure are the inherent powers of court mentioned?

In which section of the Code of Civil Procedure are the inherent powers of court mentioned?

A.Section 148
B.Section 151
C.Section 95
D.Section 114
MCQ
12

Question 12: An offer which is allowed to remain open for acceptance over a period of time is known as:

An offer which is allowed to remain open for acceptance over a period of time is known as:

A.Invitation to offer
B.Cross offer
C.Standing offer
D.Specific offer
MCQ
13

Question 13: Which of the following statements is correct?

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.Contract with minor is valid.
B.Rule of estoppel apply to minor.
C.Contract with minor can be ratified on attaining majority.
D.A minor can be agent.
MCQ
14

Question 14: In which of the following situations will the provisions of Section 56 of the Contract Act not apply?

In which of the following situations will the provisions of Section 56 of the Contract Act not apply?

A.Destruction of subject matter
B.Subsequent impossibility
C.Change of law
D.Difficulty of performance
MCQ
15

Question 15: A contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of third person in case of his default is known as:

A contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of third person in case of his default is known as:

A.Contract of indemnity
B.Contract of bailment
C.Contract of guarantee
D.Contract of agency
MCQ
16

Question 16: 'A' without authority of 'B' lends money of 'B' to 'C'. Afterwards, 'B' accepts interest on money from 'C'. What does 'B's conduct lead to?

'A' without authority of 'B' lends money of 'B' to 'C'. Afterwards, 'B' accepts interest on money from 'C'. What does 'B's conduct lead to?

A.Agency by necessity
B.Agency by holding out
C.Agency by estoppel
D.Agency by ratification
MCQ
17

Question 17: In which of the following cases was the legality of contract over telephone decided?

In which of the following cases was the legality of contract over telephone decided?

A.Hyde v. Wrench
B.Powell v. Lee
C.Entores Ltd. v. Miles Far East Corporation
D.Said v. Butt
MCQ
18

Question 18: In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court struck down a clause in service agreement whereby service of a permanent employee could be terminat

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court struck down a clause in service agreement whereby service of a permanent employee could be terminated by giving 3 months' notice, as unreasonable and opposed to public policy?

A.Hakam Singh v. Gammon India
B.S.G. Nayak v. National Insurance Co.
C.State of Karnataka v. Shree Rameshwara Rice Mills
D.Central Inland Water Transport Corp. Ltd. v. Brojo Nath
MCQ
19

Question 19: Responsibility of finder of goods is covered under:

Responsibility of finder of goods is covered under:

A.indemnity
B.quasi contract
C.contingent contract
D.agency
MCQ
20

Question 20: In which of the recent cases has Supreme Court held that 'there can only be an assignment of rights arising under a contract, but not the burden of a

In which of the recent cases has Supreme Court held that 'there can only be an assignment of rights arising under a contract, but not the burden of a contract'?

A.Sasan Power Ltd. v. North American Coal Corp India Private Limited (2016)
B.United India Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Orient Treasures (P) Ltd. (2016)
C.DDA v. Kenneth Builders & Developers (2016)
D.Gangotri Enterprises v. Union of India (2016)
MCQ
21

Question 21: As per the Transfer of Property Act which of the following is NOT transferrable?

As per the Transfer of Property Act which of the following is NOT transferrable?

A.Future property
B.Movable property
C.Immovable property
D.Pension amount of pensioner
MCQ
22

Question 22: A suit to obtain a decree under Section 67 of the Transfer of Property Act is called:

A suit to obtain a decree under Section 67 of the Transfer of Property Act is called:

A.Suit for foreclosure or sale
B.Suit for redemption
C.Suit for mesne profit
D.Inter pleader Suit
MCQ
23

Question 23: In which section of Transfer of Property Act has the rule against perpetuity been mentioned?

In which section of Transfer of Property Act has the rule against perpetuity been mentioned?

A.Section 56
B.Section 14
C.Section 52
D.Section 61
MCQ
24

Question 24: What does the rule of 'Spes successionis' mean?

What does the rule of 'Spes successionis' mean?

A.Once a mortgage, always a mortgage.
B.Mere right of re-entry for breach of condition subsequent cannot be transferred.
C.The chance of an heir apparent succeeding to an estate, cannot be transferred.
D.Transfer to unborn child is not valid.
MCQ
25

Question 25: Mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage money on certain date and transfer mortgage property absolutely to mortgagee with a condition that upon

Mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage money on certain date and transfer mortgage property absolutely to mortgagee with a condition that upon repayment of mortgage money, the mortgage will re-transfer it to mortgagor. This type of mortgage is known as:

A.English mortgage
B.Mortgage by deposit of title deed
C.Usufructuary mortgage
D.Simple mortgage
MCQ
26

Question 26: Which of the following statements is correct?

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.Transfer of actionable claim is not permissible.
B.Transfer of actionable claim can be made orally.
C.Transfer of actionable claim cannot be made without consideration.
D.Transfer of actionable claim whether with or without consideration shall be effected only by execution of an instrument in writing.
MCQ
27

Question 27: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court recognize the principle "once a mortgage, always a mortgage"?

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court recognize the principle "once a mortgage, always a mortgage"?

A.Indira Kaur v. Sheo Lal Kapoor
B.Mrutanjay Pane v. Narmada Bake Sasumal
C.Sidh Kamal Nayak v. Bira Nayak
D.Chandi Rani v. Kamal Rani
MCQ
28

Question 28: In which of the following cases has Supreme Court held that 'Right of redemption of mortgagor stands extinguished, when sale of mortgaged property is

In which of the following cases has Supreme Court held that 'Right of redemption of mortgagor stands extinguished, when sale of mortgaged property is effectuated in court auction?

A.Embassy Hotel (P) Ltd. v. Gajaraj & Co.
B.Punjab & Sindh Bank v. Punjab Breeders Ltd.
C.State of H.P. v. Rajesh Chandra Sood
D.Unitech v. Union of India
MCQ
29

Question 29: 'A' signs an instrument in writing as under 'on demand, I promsise, I promise to pay 'B' the sum of Rs. 10,000'. What is this called?

'A' signs an instrument in writing as under 'on demand, I promsise, I promise to pay 'B' the sum of Rs. 10,000'. What is this called?

A.Bill of exchange
B.Simple note
C.Promissory note
D.Cheque
MCQ
30

Question 30: Who is 'holder in due course'?

Who is 'holder in due course'?

A.A person who holds negotiable instrument in the name of his spouse
B.A person who holds negotiable instrument in his name.
C.A person who becomes possessor of negotiable instrument without consideration
D.A person who becomes possessor of negotiable instrument payable to bearer for consideration.
MCQ
31

Question 31: The composition of Parliament consists of:

The composition of Parliament consists of:

A.House of the People only
B.House of the People and Council of States only
C.President, Council of States and House of the People
D.Election Commission, House of the People and Council of States
MCQ
32

Question 32: What has the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 introduced?

What has the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 introduced?

A.Victim compensation scheme
B.Plea bargaining
C.Sentencing power of magistrate
D.Medical examination of victim of rape
MCQ
33

Question 33: 'Writ of Certiorari' is issued in which of the following cases?

'Writ of Certiorari' is issued in which of the following cases?

A.To quash illegal appointment on public post
B.To direct release of person detained illegally
C.To quash order of quasi-judicial bodies, if passed without jurisdiction
D.To direct public authorities to perform their public duties
MCQ
34

Question 34: Which of the following is a fundamental duty of every citizen of India?

Which of the following is a fundamental duty of every citizen of India?

A.Safeguard public property and to abjure violence
B.Organization of Village Panchayats
C.Protect interests of minorities
D.Separate judiciary from executive
MCQ
35

Question 35: In which of the following cases did Supreme Court issue directions in the favour of acid attack victims?

In which of the following cases did Supreme Court issue directions in the favour of acid attack victims?

A.Devika Biswas v. Union of India (2016)
B.Laxmi v. Union of India (2016)
C.Swaraj Abhiyan v. Union of India (2016)
D.Ashiq Hussain Faktoo v. Union of India (2016)
MCQ
36

Question 36: Provisions for Co-operative Societies has been added in the Constitution of India by:

Provisions for Co-operative Societies has been added in the Constitution of India by:

A.Constitution (Seventy Eighth Amendment) Act, 1995
B.Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011
C.Constitution (Ninety Ninth Amendment) Act, 2014
D.Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015
MCQ
37

Question 37: In which of the following cases was the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) declared unconstitutional by Supreme Court?

In which of the following cases was the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) declared unconstitutional by Supreme Court?

A.Bhim Singh v. Union of India
B.M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
C.Common Cause v. Union of India
D.Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India
MCQ
38

Question 38: Unless approved by the resolution of both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of President rule in State shall cease to operate after expiration of

Unless approved by the resolution of both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of President rule in State shall cease to operate after expiration of ...................

A.one month
B.two months
C.three months
D.six months
MCQ
39

Question 39: Which article of the Constitution of India states that "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India"?

Which article of the Constitution of India states that "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India"?

A.Article 1
B.Article 2
C.Article 393
D.Article 394
MCQ
40

Question 40: How many Schedules are there in the Constitution of India?

How many Schedules are there in the Constitution of India?

A.10
B.12
C.11
D.9
MCQ
41

Question 41: According to Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, what is the term of imprisonment for life?

According to Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, what is the term of imprisonment for life?

A.20 years
B.14 years
C.16 years
D.12 years
MCQ
42

Question 42: In which of the following cases did Supreme Court make it clear that 'mere criticism or comments on government would not amount to offence of sedition

In which of the following cases did Supreme Court make it clear that 'mere criticism or comments on government would not amount to offence of sedition'?

A.Ranbir Singh v. State of Haryana
B.Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab
C.Kedarnath v. State of Bihar
D.Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
MCQ
43

Question 43: In which of the following cases did Supreme Court issue directions for playing National Anthem in all cinema halls before start of feature film and ma

In which of the following cases did Supreme Court issue directions for playing National Anthem in all cinema halls before start of feature film and making mandatory for all in hall to stand up and show respect to National Anthem?

A.Devika Biswas v. Union of India
B.Shyam Narayan Chouksey v. Union of India
C.Bijoe Emannuel v. State of Kerala
D.M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
MCQ
44

Question 44: In which of the following cases, the 'Rarest of rare' doctrine for award of death sentence was evolved by the Supreme Court?

In which of the following cases, the 'Rarest of rare' doctrine for award of death sentence was evolved by the Supreme Court?

A.Ashok Kumar v. State of Rajasthan
B.State of Tamil Naidu v. Nalini
C.Bachhan Singh v. State of Punjab
D.Mahesh Balmiki v. State of MP
MCQ
45

Question 45: 'A' finds a diamond ring in shopping mall not knowing to whom it belongs. 'A' sells it immediately without attempting to discover the true owner. Has

'A' finds a diamond ring in shopping mall not knowing to whom it belongs. 'A' sells it immediately without attempting to discover the true owner. Has 'A' committed any offence? Select correct answer from the given options.

A.'A' has committed offence of criminal breach of trust
B.'A' has committed offence of mischief.
C.'A' has not committed any offence.
D.'A' has committed offence of dishonest misappropriation of property.
MCQ
46

Question 46: Any man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, email or any other form of electronic communication commits the offence of:

Any man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, email or any other form of electronic communication commits the offence of:

A.voyeurism
B.stalking
C.sexual harassment
D.assault
MCQ
47

Question 47: Under which section of the Indian Penal Code is the non-treatment of victim by Public or Private hospitals punishable?

Under which section of the Indian Penal Code is the non-treatment of victim by Public or Private hospitals punishable?

A.Section 166B
B.Section 165A
C.Section 228A
D.Section 376D
MCQ
48

Question 48: 'A' causes 'Z' to go within a walled space and locks 'Z' in. 'Z' is thus prevented from proceeding in any direction beyond the circumscribing line of

'A' causes 'Z' to go within a walled space and locks 'Z' in. 'Z' is thus prevented from proceeding in any direction beyond the circumscribing line of wall. 'A' has committed an offence of:

A.wrongful restrain of Z
B.wrongful confinement of Z
C.criminal force against Z
D.endangering life and personal safety of Z
MCQ
49

Question 49: What does Section 376-D of the Indian Penal Code relate to?

What does Section 376-D of the Indian Penal Code relate to?

A.Custodial rape
B.Gang rape
C.Compensation to victim of rape
D.Rape by husband
MCQ
50

Question 50: Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides an accused the right to be defended by a pleader of his choice?

Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides an accused the right to be defended by a pleader of his choice?

A.Section 304
B.Section 303
C.Section 302
D.Section 306
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