Question 1

'A' shoots 'Z' with intention of killing him 'Z' dies in consequence. 'A' is liable for

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Murder. Under Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), if an act is done with the intention of causing death, and death is caused, it amounts to murder.

Question 2

A imports into India, or exports therefrom, any counter feit coin, knowing, the same to be counter feit is, liable under section .......... Of I.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 234. Section 234 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) specifically deals with the offence of importing or exporting counterfeit coin.

Question 3

Intentional omission to give information, of offence by a person legally bound to inform is dealt under section

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 202. Section 202 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) makes it an offence for a person, knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been committed, to intentionally omit to give any information respecting that offence which he is legally bound to give.

Question 4

The word "public servant" denotes: A person falling under..

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides a comprehensive definition of "public servant," which includes commissioned officers in the military, judges, and officers of a court of justice, among others. Therefore, all the given options fall under the definition.

Question 5

Section 29A of I.P.C. is related to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Electronic record. Section 29A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was inserted by the Information Technology Act, 2000, to define "electronic record."

Question 6

'A' a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officers in conformity with the commands of the Law. A has committed no offence, his defence comes under section .......... of I.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 76. Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides a general exception for acts done by a person who is bound by law to do it, or who, by reason of a mistake of fact and not a mistake of law, in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it. A soldier acting under lawful orders of his superior officers, in conformity with the commands of the law, falls under this exception.

Question 7

When the right of private defence of property extends to causing death.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Section 103 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) enumerates the situations in which the right of private defence of property extends to voluntarily causing death. These include robbery, house-breaking by night, and mischief by fire committed on any building used as a human dwelling or for custody of property, among others.

Question 8

Whoever, wages war against the Government of India or attempts to wage such war shall be punished with.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Death or imprisonment of life with fine.. Section 121 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) prescribes punishment for waging, or attempting to wage war, or abetting waging of war, against the Government of India. The punishment is death or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine.

Question 9

Which kind of hurt is not a grievous hurt.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Fracture or dislocation of tooth.. This question is flawed as all the listed options (Emasculation, Privation of any member or joint, Disfiguration of the head or face, and Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth) are explicitly defined as 'grievous hurt' under Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). If forced to choose, there is no legally correct answer among the options for 'not a grievous hurt'.

Question 10

'A' shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe that 'A' is about to Strike Z, A has

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Commilted Assault. Section 351 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines assault as making any gesture or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to him. Shaking a fist with the intent to cause apprehension of being struck falls squarely under this definition.

Question 11

Who is competent to issue a conditional order for removal of nuisance under section 133 of Cr.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) empowers a District Magistrate, a Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or any other Executive Magistrate specially empowered in this behalf by the State Government, to issue a conditional order for the removal of nuisance.

Question 12

A lets a house to B at yearly rent of Rs. 12,000/-. The rent for the whole of the years 2015, 2016 and 2017 is due and unpaid. A sues B in 2018 only for the rent due for the year 2016. Whether A can after wards sue for the rent due for the year of 2015 and 2017?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No. Under Order 2 Rule 2 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC), if a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes, any portion of his claim, he shall not afterwards sue in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished. In this case, A sued only for the rent of 2016, omitting the rent for 2015 and 2017, which were also due at the time of filing the suit. Therefore, A cannot subsequently sue for the rent of 2015 and 2017.

Question 13

Section 10 of the civil procedure code is related to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Stay of suit. Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) deals with the principle of 'res sub judice', which mandates the stay of a suit where the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties. This is commonly referred to as "stay of suit."

Question 14

Section 96 of civil procedure code applies to appeal from

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Original Decree. Section 96 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) provides for appeals from original decrees. Appeals against injunction orders and restoration orders are usually covered under Order 43 Rule 1.

Question 15

Where a person commits a public nuisance

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Public nuisance is an offence under the Indian Penal Code (e.g., Section 268) leading to criminal prosecution. Additionally, Section 91 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) allows for a suit for a declaration and injunction in cases of public nuisance. A suit for damages can also be filed by a person who has suffered special damage. Therefore, all the given options are possible.

Question 16

Time limit for filing written statement is 30 days which may be extended up to 90 days shall be counted from.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Date of service of summon on the defendant.. As per Order 8 Rule 1 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC), the defendant shall, within thirty days from the date of service of summons on him, present a written statement of his defence. This period may be extended, but not beyond ninety days from the date of service of summons.

Question 17

Principle of Res-judicata does not apply to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Arbitration proceeding. The principle of res judicata (Section 11 CPC) applies to suits and execution proceedings. However, it generally does not apply to arbitration proceedings in the same strict sense, as arbitration is an alternative dispute resolution mechanism and its awards are governed by specific provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.

Question 18

On which ground plaint can not be rejected?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Plaint is filed in such court which does not have jurisdiction to try the suit.. Order 7 Rule 11 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) lists the grounds for rejection of a plaint. Filing a plaint in a court that does not have jurisdiction is a ground for return of the plaint (Order 7 Rule 10), not its rejection.

Question 19

Which section is related to the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 6. Section 6 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) deals with pecuniary jurisdiction, specifying that no court shall have jurisdiction to try any suit the amount or value of the subject-matter of which exceeds the pecuniary limits of its ordinary jurisdiction.

Question 20

Order 32 of the code of civil procedure is related to?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Suit by or against minors and persons of unsound mind.. Order 32 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) specifically deals with suits by or against minors and persons of unsound mind, outlining the procedure for their representation in legal proceedings.

Question 21

If a right of a Liability is created by a statue, which of the following situation may arise.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Both (1) and (2). When a statute creates a new right or liability, it may also prescribe a specific forum for its enforcement. However, if the statute creates a right or liability but provides no specific machinery for its enforcement, the ordinary civil courts generally have jurisdiction to entertain a suit for its enforcement.

Question 22

When police may arrest without warrant.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Both (1) and (2). Section 41 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) enumerates several circumstances under which a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant, including a person who commits a cognizable offence in the presence of a police officer, and a person who has been proclaimed as an offender by the State Government.

Question 23

Under which section of Cr.P.C. Assistant Public prosecutor is appointed by the Government.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 25. Section 25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) provides for the appointment of Assistant Public Prosecutors by the State Government for conducting prosecutions in the Courts of Magistrates.

Question 24

Dishnour of cheque for insufficiency of funds etc. in the account related to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 138 of N.I. Act. Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, specifically deals with the dishonour of a cheque for insufficiency of funds in the account.

Question 25

Cognizence under section 498A of I.P.C. can be taken.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Section 198A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) specifies that cognizance of an offence under Section 498A IPC can be taken upon a police report or upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved or by her specified relatives (father, mother, brother, sister, etc.).

Question 26

Which of the following statements are correct.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Conviction can be based upon evidence partly recorded by one magistrate and partly recorded by another magistrate.. Section 326 of the Cr.P.C. allows a Magistrate to act on evidence partly recorded by his predecessor or by another Magistrate. (1) is incorrect as accused is a competent witness (S. 315 CrPC). (2) is incorrect as accused is not liable for false answers under S. 313 CrPC. (4) is incorrect as compounding an offence under S. 320 CrPC does have the effect of an acquittal.

Question 27

Chief judicial magistrate may pass sentence?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Upto seven years imprisonment.. Section 29(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) states that the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law, except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.

Question 28

When any person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence he may apply for anticipatory bail under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 438 Cr.P.C.. Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) deals with directions for grant of bail to persons apprehending arrest (anticipatory bail) in connection with a non-bailable offence.

Question 29

Who is not competent to pass an order under section 106 Cr.P.C. to take security for keeping the peace on conviction.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Executive Magistrate. Section 106 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) empowers a Court of Session or a Magistrate of the first class (including a Chief Judicial Magistrate and an Additional Sessions Judge) to order a person to execute a bond for keeping the peace on conviction. Executive Magistrates are not empowered under this section.

Question 30

Power of court to convert summons case in to warrant case is provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 259 Cr.P.C.. Section 259 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) allows a Magistrate to convert a summons case into a warrant case if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding six months.

Question 31

The provision to tender pardon to an accomplice is given in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 306 Cr.P.C.. Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) empowers a Chief Judicial Magistrate or a Metropolitan Magistrate, or a Magistrate of the first class, to tender a pardon to an accomplice on condition of his making a full and true disclosure of the whole of the circumstances within his knowledge relative to the offence.

Question 32

'A' is tried for murder of 'B' intentionally beating him with a club causing his death, which of the following facts are in issue.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. In a trial for murder, the prosecution must prove the act (A's beating B), the causation (A's causing B's death), and the mens rea (A's intention to cause B's death). All these are essential elements of the offence and thus "facts in issue."

Question 33

A desires, a court to give judgement that he is entitled to certain land in the possession of B on basis of certain facts, which 'B' denies to be true under section 101 of evidence Act

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A must prove the existence of those facts. Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that "Whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist." Therefore, A must prove the existence of those facts.

Question 34

Relevant facts to consider a statement under section 32 of Evidence Act, are

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above.. Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, lists several circumstances under which statements of persons who cannot be called as witnesses are relevant, including when they relate to the cause of death, existence of relationship, or are made in a will or deed relating to family affairs. Therefore, all the given options are relevant.

Question 35

Essential requirement for application of Section 27 of Evidence Act are.........

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: (1) and (2) both. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, requires that the person giving the information must be an accused of any offence, and the accused must be in the custody of a police officer when the information is given.

Question 36

When court is to form an opinion regarding electronic signature then opinion of certifying officer who issued electronic signature is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: is relevant. Section 47A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that when the Court has to form an opinion as to the electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the Certifying Authority which has issued the electronic signature Certificate is a relevant fact.

Question 37

When any fact is especially with in the knowledge of accused, the burden of proving that fact is upon.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Accused. Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that "When any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him." Therefore, if a fact is especially within the knowledge of the accused, the burden of proving that fact lies upon the accused.

Question 38

Husband and wife are competent witness against each other in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: In civil and criminal cases. Section 120 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that in all civil proceedings, the parties to the suit, and the husband or wife of any party to the suit, shall be competent witnesses. In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person, respectively, shall be a competent witness. Thus, they are competent witnesses against each other in both civil and criminal cases.

Question 39

Presumption as to dowry death is provided in .......... of Evidence Act.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 113B. Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with the presumption as to dowry death.

Question 40

Queen v. Abdulla (1885) All 385 case Law is related to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Conduct. The case of Queen v. Abdulla (1885) All 385 is a landmark case in Indian evidence law, particularly known for its discussion on dying declarations and the admissibility of conduct as evidence.

Question 41

Whether following document are public documents.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Both (1) and (2). Section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, defines public documents to include documents forming the acts or records of the acts of the sovereign authority, and public records kept in any State of private documents. Therefore, both (1) and (2) are public documents.

Question 42

A owes B Rs. 1,000/- but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay Rs. 500/- on account of debt.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: This is a contract. Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides an exception that a promise made in writing and signed, to pay wholly or in part a debt barred by the law of limitation, is a valid contract.

Question 43

A agrees to buy from B a certain horse. It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of bargain though neither party was aware of the fact.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: This agreement is void.. Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void. The existence of the horse is an essential fact, and both parties were mistaken about it being alive.

Question 44

A employs B to beat C and agree to indemnify him against all consequences of the Act. B thereupon beats C and pays damages to C for so doing.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A is not liable to indemnify B for these damages. An agreement to beat someone is unlawful. An agreement to indemnify a person against the consequences of an unlawful act is void under Section 24 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Therefore, A is not liable to indemnify B.

Question 45

A for natural love and affection promises to give his son B Rs. 1,00,000/-. A puts his promise to 'B' in to writing and register it. This is a ............?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Contract. Section 25(1) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that an agreement made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other, if expressed in writing and registered, is a valid contract, even without consideration.

Question 46

In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner. Section 7 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that acceptance must be absolute and unqualified, and be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner. Since option (1) says 'qualified', it is incorrect. Thus, only (2) is correct.

Question 47

Court fees Act defines fees on document filed, etc. In mufassil courts or in public offices under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 6. Section 6 of the Court Fees Act, 1870, deals with the fees payable on documents filed in Courts and public offices.

Question 48

Fee on memorandum of appeal against order relating to compensation is provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 8. Section 8 of the Court Fees Act, 1870, specifically deals with the fee on memorandum of appeal against an order relating to compensation.

Question 49

Under court fees Act-the exemption of certain documents from fees include:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Written statement. Under the Court Fees Act, written statements are generally exempt from court fees. Plaints and various processes are typically chargeable with fees.

Question 50

Where the court refers the parties to the suit to the mode of settlement of dispute referred to in Section 89 of C.P.C. plaintiff shall be entitled to refund of court fees under.... Section of court fees Act.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 16. Section 16 of the Court Fees Act, 1870, inserted by the CPC (Amendment) Act, 1999, provides for the refund of court fees where the Court refers the parties to the suit to any of the modes of settlement of dispute referred to in Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code and the dispute is settled.

Question 51

Under Section 35 of the court fees Act State Government remits the court fees where plaintiffs annual income does not exceed Rs. 25,000/- to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All of these. Section 35 of the Court Fees Act, 1870, allows the State Government to remit or reduce court fees. In many states, including Chhattisgarh, specific notifications are issued under this section to exempt or reduce court fees for certain categories of persons, such as members of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women, whose annual income does not exceed a specified limit.

Question 52

Cultivate personally means under the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: By one's own labour. In land revenue codes, "cultivate personally" generally means cultivation by one's own labour, or by the labour of any member of one's family, or by hired labour under one's personal supervision.

Question 53

When a witness fails to comply with the summons .......... may be issued under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All of the above. Under various procedural laws, including Land Revenue Codes, if a witness fails to comply with a summons, the authority may issue a warrant (bailable or non-bailable), require security for appearance, and/or impose a fine. Therefore, all the given options are possible measures.

Question 54

The assessment of land revenue on any land shall be made with reference to the use of land.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All of the above. The assessment of land revenue is typically based on the use of the land. Different land uses, such as agricultural, industrial, commercial, or residential, have different assessment rates. Therefore, the assessment is made with reference to all types of land use.

Question 55

Section 118 of Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code related to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Presumption as to entries in land records. Section 118 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, deals with the presumption as to entries in land records, stating that all entries made in the land records shall, until the contrary is proved, be presumed to be correct.

Question 56

Under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code define Governments title to minerals

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 248. Section 248 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, declares that the right to all minerals, mines, and quarries shall vest in the State Government.

Question 57

Chapter 5 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code is related to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Chapter V of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, deals with appeals, revisions, and reviews of orders passed by revenue officers.

Question 58

The document registration of which is optional have been dealt in.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 18 of Registration Act. Section 18 of the Registration Act, 1908, lists the documents of which registration is optional. Section 17 deals with compulsory registration.

Question 59

A document executed out of India can be registered if presented with in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Four months of its arrival in India. Section 26 of the Registration Act, 1908, provides that if a document executed out of India is presented for registration within four months after its arrival in India, it may be registered.

Question 60

Under Section 32 of Registration Act a document for registration can be presented

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Any of the above. Section 32 of the Registration Act, 1908, specifies that documents can be presented for registration by the person executing the document, his representative or assign, or the agent of such person, representative or assign, duly authorized by a power-of-attorney.

Question 61

The term negotiation of the negotiable Instrument Act 1881 refers to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The transfer of a bill of exchange, promissory note or cheque to any person, so as to constitute the person the holder there of. Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, "negotiation" means the transfer of a negotiable instrument from one person to another in such a manner as to constitute the transferee the holder thereof.

Question 62

When presentment for payment is to be made under section 65 of the Act?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Presentment for payment must be made during the usual hours of business and, if at a bank within banking hours. Section 65 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, states that presentment for payment must be made during the usual hours of business, and, if at a bank, within banking hours.

Question 63

For what term of imprisonment an offender under section 138 of the negotiable instrument Act can be punished

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: For a term which may extend to two years. Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, prescribes punishment with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque, or with both.

Question 64

At sight under the negotiable instrument Act means

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: On demand. Section 21 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, states that in a promissory note or bill of exchange, the expressions "at sight" and "on presentation" mean "on demand."

Chhattisgarh Pre 2019

100 Questions Available

Chhattisgarh Pre 2019

100 Questions Available

Question 1: 'A' shoots 'Z' with intention of killing him 'Z' dies in consequence. 'A' is liable for

Question 2: A imports into India, or exports therefrom, any counter feit coin, knowing, the same to be counter feit is, liable under section .......... Of I.P.C.

Question 3: Intentional omission to give information, of offence by a person legally bound to inform is dealt under section

Question 4: The word "public servant" denotes: A person falling under..

Question 5: Section 29A of I.P.C. is related to

Question 6: 'A' a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officers in conformity with the commands of the Law. A has committed no offence, his defenc

Question 7: When the right of private defence of property extends to causing death.

Question 8: Whoever, wages war against the Government of India or attempts to wage such war shall be punished with.

Question 9: Which kind of hurt is not a grievous hurt.

Question 10: 'A' shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe that 'A' is about to Strike Z, A has

Question 11: Who is competent to issue a conditional order for removal of nuisance under section 133 of Cr.P.C.

Question 12: A lets a house to B at yearly rent of Rs. 12,000/-. The rent for the whole of the years 2015, 2016 and 2017 is due and unpaid. A sues B in 2018 only f

Question 13: Section 10 of the civil procedure code is related to

Question 14: Section 96 of civil procedure code applies to appeal from

Question 15: Where a person commits a public nuisance

Question 16: Time limit for filing written statement is 30 days which may be extended up to 90 days shall be counted from.

Question 17: Principle of Res-judicata does not apply to

Question 18: On which ground plaint can not be rejected?

Question 19: Which section is related to the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court?

Question 20: Order 32 of the code of civil procedure is related to?

Question 21: If a right of a Liability is created by a statue, which of the following situation may arise.

Question 22: When police may arrest without warrant.

Question 23: Under which section of Cr.P.C. Assistant Public prosecutor is appointed by the Government.

Question 24: Dishnour of cheque for insufficiency of funds etc. in the account related to

Question 25: Cognizence under section 498A of I.P.C. can be taken.

Question 26: Which of the following statements are correct.

Question 27: Chief judicial magistrate may pass sentence?

Question 28: When any person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence he may apply for anticipator

Question 29: Who is not competent to pass an order under section 106 Cr.P.C. to take security for keeping the peace on conviction.

Question 30: Power of court to convert summons case in to warrant case is provided under

Question 31: The provision to tender pardon to an accomplice is given in

Question 32: 'A' is tried for murder of 'B' intentionally beating him with a club causing his death, which of the following facts are in issue.

Question 33: A desires, a court to give judgement that he is entitled to certain land in the possession of B on basis of certain facts, which 'B' denies to be true

Question 34: Relevant facts to consider a statement under section 32 of Evidence Act, are

Question 35: Essential requirement for application of Section 27 of Evidence Act are.........

Question 36: When court is to form an opinion regarding electronic signature then opinion of certifying officer who issued electronic signature is

Question 37: When any fact is especially with in the knowledge of accused, the burden of proving that fact is upon.

Question 38: Husband and wife are competent witness against each other in

Question 39: Presumption as to dowry death is provided in .......... of Evidence Act.

Question 40: Queen v. Abdulla (1885) All 385 case Law is related to

Question 41: Whether following document are public documents.

Question 42: A owes B Rs. 1,000/- but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay Rs. 500/- on account of debt.

Question 43: A agrees to buy from B a certain horse. It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of bargain though neither party was aware of the fact.

Question 44: A employs B to beat C and agree to indemnify him against all consequences of the Act. B thereupon beats C and pays damages to C for so doing.

Question 45: A for natural love and affection promises to give his son B Rs. 1,00,000/-. A puts his promise to 'B' in to writing and register it. This is a .......

Question 46: In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must

Question 47: Court fees Act defines fees on document filed, etc. In mufassil courts or in public offices under

Question 48: Fee on memorandum of appeal against order relating to compensation is provided under

Question 49: Under court fees Act-the exemption of certain documents from fees include:

Question 50: Where the court refers the parties to the suit to the mode of settlement of dispute referred to in Section 89 of C.P.C. plaintiff shall be entitled to