Question 1

Right to property is a

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Legal Right. Originally a Fundamental Right, it was removed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, and made a legal right under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution.

Question 2

Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State Policy under the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Free and compulsory education for children upto fourteen years of age. Free and compulsory education for children up to fourteen years of age was originally a DPSP (Article 45) but was made a Fundamental Right (Article 21A) by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002. Article 45 now provides for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years.

Question 3

Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Backward Classes Commission. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes.

Question 4

Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Speaker of Lok Sabha. As per Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.

Question 5

Under the Constitution of India, the procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge is given in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 124(4). Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution specifies the procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge.

Question 6

Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Proclamation of Emergency. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Proclamation of Emergency (National Emergency).

Question 7

In a suit against the Central Government the authority to be named as defendant is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The Union of India. As per Article 300 of the Indian Constitution, the Union of India is the proper party to be sued in a suit against the Central Government.

Question 8

Under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908, second appeal lies to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any subordinate Court to the High Court if it involves

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Substantial Question of Law. Section 100 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, explicitly states that a second appeal lies to the High Court only if the case involves a 'substantial question of law'.

Question 9

The maximum amount which a Court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexatious claims or defence under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Rs. 25,000. As per Section 35A of the CPC, the maximum amount for compensatory costs for false or vexatious claims or defenses is generally Rs. 3,000, or the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court, whichever is less. However, specific state amendments (like in Chhattisgarh) can increase this limit. The marked answer indicates Rs. 25,000, suggesting a state-specific amendment.

Question 10

Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code, attachment before Judgement is provided?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Order XXXVIII, Rule 5. Order XXXVIII, Rule 5 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, deals with attachment before judgment.

Question 11

Order V of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 provides for

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Issue and service of summons. Order V of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, specifically deals with the issue and service of summons.

Question 12

Pleading can be amended under which of the provisions of Civil Procedure Code, 1908:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Before either the trial Court, first Appellate Court or second Appellate Court. Order VI Rule 17 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, allows amendment of pleadings at any stage of the proceedings, including before the trial court, first appellate court, or second appellate court, provided it is necessary for determining the real questions in controversy.

Question 13

Attachment of a portion of salary can be continued as a provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for a maximum period of

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 24 months. The proviso to Section 60(1) of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, states that where any part of such salary is liable to attachment, such part shall not be liable to attachment for a period exceeding twenty-four months in the aggregate.

Question 14

Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All of the above. Preliminary decrees can be passed in various types of suits, including partition, possession and mesne profits, partnership, administration suits, foreclosure of mortgage, etc.

Question 15

The period of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction shall not exceed

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Six months. Order XXI Rule 32(1) and Order XXXIX Rule 2A of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, deal with civil imprisonment for disobedience of injunctions. The maximum period of detention is six months.

Question 16

A suit in respect of Public Charities is provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 92 of CPC. Section 92 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, specifically deals with suits relating to public charities.

Question 17

Where a party dies after conclusion of the hearing and before pronouncement of the judgement,

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: It will be deemed that the judgement has been pronounced before death of the party. Order XXII Rule 6 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, states that if a party dies after the conclusion of the hearing but before the pronouncement of judgment, the suit does not abate, and the judgment may be pronounced notwithstanding the death.

Question 18

If a party who has obtained an order to amend the pleadings under Civil Procedure Code, if not amended after, expiration of how many days shall not be permitted to amend the same without the leave of the Court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 14 days. Order VI Rule 18 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, states that if a party fails to amend pleadings within the time limited by the order, or if no time is limited, then within fourteen days from the date of the order, they shall not be permitted to amend without the leave of the Court.

Question 19

What is estoppel?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Prohibition from proving a certain fact. Estoppel, as defined in Sections 115-117 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, prevents a person from denying or asserting a fact contrary to what has been previously established or asserted by them.

Question 20

Thirty years old document if produced from a proper custody

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Court shall presume its execution. Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that the Court 'shall presume' that every document purporting to be thirty years old, if produced from proper custody, was duly executed and attested.

Question 21

Which of the following is not included in section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Intention. Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with motive, preparation, and previous or subsequent conduct. Intention is not explicitly mentioned as a separate category under Section 8.

Question 22

Under which section of Indian Evidence Act, a public servant shall not be compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 124. Section 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, protects official communications, stating that a public officer shall not be compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence.

Question 23

Which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act does not deal with criminal matters?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 23. Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with admissions in civil cases when relevant. Sections 25, 30, and 53 primarily relate to criminal matters (confessions, character evidence).

Question 24

The Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on the electronic record under Indian Evidence Act when it is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 5 years old. Sections 85A, 85B, and 85C of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deal with presumptions as to electronic records and digital signatures. While there isn't a direct '5 years old' rule for legality of digital signatures like for physical documents, this option is marked as correct in the source, possibly referring to a specific interpretation or related provision not explicitly stated in the general Act.

Question 25

Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Secondary Evidence -Section 62 of the Evidence Act. Secondary Evidence is dealt with in Section 63 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Section 62 defines Primary Evidence. Therefore, option (b) is incorrectly matched.

Question 26

Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act the principle of "Res Gestae" is given

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 6. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with the relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction, which is the principle of Res Gestae.

Question 27

Indian Evidence Act does not expressly mention about:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Circumstantial Evidence. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, defines and deals with oral evidence, documentary evidence, and secondary evidence. While circumstantial evidence is a recognized type of evidence, the Act does not expressly define or mention 'circumstantial evidence' as a distinct category in the same way it does for oral or documentary evidence.

Question 28

What is private document?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Document other than a public document. Section 75 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that all documents other than public documents (defined in Section 74) are private documents.

Question 29

When under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is statement recorded by the police?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: During investigation. Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the examination of witnesses by police during the course of an investigation.

Question 30

The procedure for trial before a Court of Session is provided under section of the Code of Criminal Procedure

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 225 to section 237 of CrPC. Chapter XVIII of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Sections 225-237), deals with the trial before a Court of Session.

Question 31

What is the maximum period an Executive Magistrate may authorize the detention of an accused in custody?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Not exceeding 7 days. Section 167(2A) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, states that an Executive Magistrate, if he has no jurisdiction to try the case or commit it for trial, may authorize detention for a period not exceeding seven days.

Question 32

For the purpose of taking cognizance of an offence, what period of limitation is prescribed for an offence carrying punishment not exceeding one year by the Court

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 1 year. Section 468(2)(b) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, states that the period of limitation shall be one year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.

Question 33

Under which section of CrPC. Magistrate may direct a local investigation?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 139. Section 139 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, empowers a Magistrate to direct a local investigation in certain cases, particularly concerning public nuisances.

Question 34

A statement recorded under which section of CrPC need not be signed by the maker?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 161. Section 161(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, explicitly states that a statement recorded under this section does not require the signature of the person making the statement.

Question 35

A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the CrPC by

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The police officer investigating the case. Section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, states that 'Any police officer making an investigation under this Chapter may, by order in writing, require the attendance before himself of any person...' referring to the investigating officer.

Question 36

The prosecution of Judges and public servants are provided in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 197 CrPC. Section 197 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the prosecution of Judges and public servants, requiring previous sanction for prosecution for acts done in discharge of official duty.

Question 37

An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 315. Section 315 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, allows an accused person to be a competent witness for the defence and give evidence on oath in disproof of the charges made against him.

Question 38

Under section 190(2) of CrPC who may empower any Magistrate of second class to take cognizance of offences?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Chief Judicial Magistrate. Section 190(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, states that 'The Chief Judicial Magistrate may empower any Magistrate of the second class to take cognizance under sub-section (1) of such offences as are within his competence to inquire into or try'.

Question 39

Under which one of the following sections of CrPC, Magistrate second class can conduct summary trial?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 261. Section 261 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, empowers a Magistrate of the second class specially empowered by the High Court to try summarily any offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months.

Question 40

Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under CrPC by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 357(A). Section 357A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2008 (and further strengthened by the 2013 amendment), deals with the Victim Compensation Scheme, which is part of victim treatment.

Question 41

Which are the two essential elements of an offence?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Motive and Act. The essential elements of a crime are generally 'actus reus' (a guilty act) and 'mens rea' (a guilty mind). Among the given options, 'Act' represents 'actus reus', and 'Motive' is closely related to 'mens rea' as the underlying reason for the act.

Question 42

For the offence of abduction of person, abducted must be:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Minor or major. Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines abduction. Unlike kidnapping, abduction does not have an age limit; it can apply to both minors and majors.

Question 43

Which of the following is an essential part of 'Rule of Law' and 'Independence of Judiciary'?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Judicial Review. Judicial Review is a fundamental aspect of the Rule of Law and the independence of the judiciary, as it allows courts to check the constitutionality and legality of legislative and executive actions.

Question 44

According to clause 1 of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All of the above. Article 25(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the freedom of religion is subject to public order, morality, and health, and to the other provisions of Part III.

Question 45

Which among the following has the power to extend the functions of the State Public Service Commission?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The State Legislature. Article 321 of the Indian Constitution states that the Legislature of a State may provide for the exercise of additional functions by the State Public Service Commission.

Question 46

Which of the following Amendment Act of the Constitution provides for the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more States?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 7th. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, facilitated the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states.

Question 47

Power to constitute new States and determination of its boundaries vests in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Parliament. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution grants Parliament the power to form new States, alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States.

Question 48

The words "Unity of Integrity of the Nation" were incorporated in the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which Amendment?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 42. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, added the words 'Socialist,' 'Secular,' and 'Integrity' to the Preamble. The original Preamble had 'Unity of the Nation,' and 'Integrity' was added, making it 'Unity and Integrity of the Nation'.

Question 49

Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act is not applicable:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Where the transfer is by way of lease. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deals with conditions making interest determinable on insolvency or attempted alienation. It states that such a condition is void, 'except in a lease where the condition is for the benefit of the lessor'. Thus, the rule of Section 12 (making the condition void) is not applicable to leases in the same way it is to other transfers, as it allows such conditions in leases.

Question 50

Which one of the following is not an essential condition for application of Rule of "Lis Pendens" under section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Suit must be collusive. For the doctrine of Lis Pendens under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to apply, the suit or proceeding 'must not be collusive'. Therefore, 'Suit must be collusive' is not an essential condition; rather, its absence is a condition.

Question 51

Which of the following is not an actionable claim?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability. Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines 'actionable claim' as a claim to any debt or beneficial interest in movable property. A right coupled with a liability is generally not considered a pure actionable claim, as actionable claims are typically pure debts or beneficial interests without corresponding liabilities attached to the claim itself.

Question 52

Any application for which no period of application is provided can be filed within:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 3 years. Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963, provides a residuary period of limitation of three years for any application for which no period of limitation is provided elsewhere in the Schedule.

Question 53

Section 19 of the Court Fee Act, 1870 relates to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Exemption of Court fee of certain document. Section 19 of the Court Fees Act, 1870, lists certain documents that are exempt from court fees.

Question 54

The period of limitation for a suit for damages on account of malicious prosecution is:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 1 year. Article 74 of the Limitation Act, 1963, prescribes a period of one year for a suit for compensation for malicious prosecution, commencing from when the plaintiff is acquitted or the prosecution is otherwise terminated.

Question 55

The law of limitation runs from the:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Depends upon the circumstances. The starting point for the period of limitation varies depending on the specific cause of action and is specified in the third column of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963. It is not a fixed date but depends on the circumstances of each case.

Question 56

Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963, deals with the effect of fraud or mistake on the period of limitation, and also covers cases of concealed documents. Thus, it takes all the mentioned aspects within its ambit.

Question 57

Which of the following sections of Limitation Act deals with effect of substituting or adding new plaintiff or defendant?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 21. Section 21 of the Limitation Act, 1963, deals with the effect of substituting or adding new plaintiffs or defendants after the institution of a suit.

Question 58

Which section of the Contract Act defines "Sub Agent"?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 191. Section 191 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines a 'sub-agent' as a person employed by, and acting under the control of, the original agent in the business of the agency.

Question 59

The nature of an agreement made under the provisions of section 20 of the Indian Contract Act would be:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Void. Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that 'Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void'.

Question 60

"Contract of Indemnity" is defined in which section of Indian Contract Act?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 124. Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines a 'contract of indemnity'.

Question 61

Under section 24 of Indian Contract Act which one of the following agreements is void?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: If consideration is unlawful. Section 24 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that 'If any part of a single consideration for one or more objects, or one or more considerations for a single object, is unlawful, the agreement is void'.

Question 62

"The liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor." It has been provided under Indian Contract Act:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: In section 128. Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that 'The liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless it is otherwise provided by the contract'.

Question 63

The Rent Controller shall be not below the rank of:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Deputy Collector. Section 2(g) of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011, defines 'Rent Controller' as an officer not below the rank of Deputy Collector, appointed by the State Government.

Question 64

The right available to a tenant under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 is provided in:-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Schedule 1 of the Act. The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011, lists the rights of tenants in Schedule I.

Chhattisgarh Pre 2020

100 Questions Available

Chhattisgarh Pre 2020

100 Questions Available

Question 1: Right to property is a

Question 2: Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State Policy under the Constitution of India?

Question 3: Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with

Question 4: Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by

Question 5: Under the Constitution of India, the procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge is given in

Question 6: Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with

Question 7: In a suit against the Central Government the authority to be named as defendant is

Question 8: Under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908, second appeal lies to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any subordinate Court to t

Question 9: The maximum amount which a Court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexatious claims or defence under Civil Procedure Code

Question 10: Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code, attachment before Judgement is provided?

Question 11: Order V of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 provides for

Question 12: Pleading can be amended under which of the provisions of Civil Procedure Code, 1908:

Question 13: Attachment of a portion of salary can be continued as a provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for a maximum period of

Question 14: Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit

Question 15: The period of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction shall not exceed

Question 16: A suit in respect of Public Charities is provided under

Question 17: Where a party dies after conclusion of the hearing and before pronouncement of the judgement,

Question 18: If a party who has obtained an order to amend the pleadings under Civil Procedure Code, if not amended after, expiration of how many days shall not be

Question 19: What is estoppel?

Question 20: Thirty years old document if produced from a proper custody

Question 21: Which of the following is not included in section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?

Question 22: Under which section of Indian Evidence Act, a public servant shall not be compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence?

Question 23: Which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act does not deal with criminal matters?

Question 24: The Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on the electronic record under Indian Evidence Act when it is

Question 25: Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Question 26: Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act the principle of "Res Gestae" is given

Question 27: Indian Evidence Act does not expressly mention about:-

Question 28: What is private document?

Question 29: When under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is statement recorded by the police?

Question 30: The procedure for trial before a Court of Session is provided under section of the Code of Criminal Procedure

Question 31: What is the maximum period an Executive Magistrate may authorize the detention of an accused in custody?

Question 32: For the purpose of taking cognizance of an offence, what period of limitation is prescribed for an offence carrying punishment not exceeding one year

Question 33: Under which section of CrPC. Magistrate may direct a local investigation?

Question 34: A statement recorded under which section of CrPC need not be signed by the maker?

Question 35: A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the CrPC by

Question 36: The prosecution of Judges and public servants are provided in

Question 37: An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; in

Question 38: Under section 190(2) of CrPC who may empower any Magistrate of second class to take cognizance of offences?

Question 39: Under which one of the following sections of CrPC, Magistrate second class can conduct summary trial?

Question 40: Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under CrPC by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under

Question 41: Which are the two essential elements of an offence?

Question 42: For the offence of abduction of person, abducted must be:-

Question 43: Which of the following is an essential part of 'Rule of Law' and 'Independence of Judiciary'?

Question 44: According to clause 1 of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of

Question 45: Which among the following has the power to extend the functions of the State Public Service Commission?

Question 46: Which of the following Amendment Act of the Constitution provides for the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more States?

Question 47: Power to constitute new States and determination of its boundaries vests in

Question 48: The words "Unity of Integrity of the Nation" were incorporated in the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which Amendment?

Question 49: Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act is not applicable:-

Question 50: Which one of the following is not an essential condition for application of Rule of "Lis Pendens" under section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act.