Question 1

Indian Evidence Act consists of

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 11 Chapters 167 Sections. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is structured into 11 Chapters and contains 167 Sections.

Question 2

As per section 1 of Indian Evidence Act, the Act came into force on

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: September 1, 1872. Section 1 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, explicitly states that the Act 'shall come into force on the first day of September, 1872'.

Question 3

'A' intentionally causes B's death partly by illegally omitting to give B food and partly by beating. A has committed the offence of

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Murder. This scenario describes an act where 'A' intentionally causes B's death through a combination of illegal omission (not providing food) and active beating. Such an act, done with the intention to cause death, falls under the definition of 'Murder' as per Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

Question 4

Act done in pursuance of order of court, if done in good faith is coverable under General Exception under which of the following sections of I.P.C.,

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 78. Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides a general exception for acts done in pursuance of, or warranted by, the judgment or order of a Court of Justice, provided the person doing the act in good faith believes that the Court had jurisdiction.

Question 5

Under Section '41-C' of Cr.P.C. State Government shall establish police control room

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: At state and district level. Section 41C(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) mandates that 'The State Government shall establish Police Control Rooms in every district and at State level'.

Question 6

'A' instigate 'B' to murder 'C'. B refuses to do so. A is guilty of

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Abetment of murder. Under the Indian Penal Code, abetment is complete as soon as the instigation to commit an offence is made, irrespective of whether the abetted act is actually committed or not. Therefore, 'A' is guilty of abetment of murder, even if 'B' refuses to carry out the act (refer to Section 107 and 108 of IPC).

Question 7

In I.P.C., punishment for rioting is provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 147. Section 147 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) prescribes the punishment for the offence of rioting. Section 146 defines what constitutes rioting.

Question 8

A, being legally bound to appear before Raipur district judge as witness in obedience to a summons issued by court, intentionally omits to appear. A is guilty under which of the following provisions of I.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 174. Section 174 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with 'Non-attendance in obedience to an order from public servant'. Intentionally omitting to appear as a witness in court despite being legally bound to do so falls under this section.

Question 9

'A' knowing that 'B' has murdered 'C' assists 'B' to hide the body with intention of screening 'B' from punishment. A is liable for punishment to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Seven year imprisonment and fine. This act falls under Section 201 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 'Causing disappearance of evidence of offence, or giving false information to screen offender'. If the offence for which the evidence is screened is punishable with death or imprisonment for life (as murder is), the person causing the disappearance of evidence is liable to imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.

Question 10

Punishment for disclosure of identity of victim of rape is provided under which of the following provision of I.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 228A. Section 228A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) specifically deals with the 'Disclosure of identity of the victim of certain offences etc.', which includes victims of rape, and prescribes punishment for such disclosure.

Question 11

Offences against human body are provided under which of the following chapters of I.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Chapter XVI. Chapter XVI of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is titled 'Of Offences Affecting the Human Body' and covers various offences such as murder, culpable homicide, hurt, grievous hurt, wrongful restraint, wrongful confinement, etc.

Question 12

'A', a police officer tortures 'B' to induce 'B' to confess that he has committed a crime. A is guilty under which of the following provision of I.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 330. Section 330 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with 'Voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession, or to compel restoration of property'. A police officer torturing someone to extort a confession directly falls under this provision.

Question 13

'A' signs his own name to a document intending that the document was signed by another person of the same name. Which of the offences defined in I.P.C. is committed by 'A'

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 464. Section 464 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines 'Making a false document'. One of the clauses states that a person is said to make a false document if he signs a document in his own name, but intending that it may be believed that such document was made by some other person of the same name.

Question 14

List of cognizable and non-cognizable offences is provided under .......... of Cr.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section II. The classification of offences as cognizable or non-cognizable, along with other details like bailable/non-bailable and triable by which court, is primarily provided in the First Schedule of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.). Given the options, 'Section II' is likely a misprint or refers to a specific part of the initial classification, as 'Schedule I' is not an option. Section 2(c) and 2(l) define these terms, but the list is in the Schedule.

Question 15

Section 6 of Cr.P.C. provides

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Classes of criminal courts. Section 6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) specifies the 'Classes of Criminal Courts' in India, which include the High Courts, Courts of Session, Judicial Magistrates of the first class, Metropolitan Magistrates, Judicial Magistrates of the second class, and Executive Magistrates.

Question 16

Plea bargaining is provided under which part of the Cr.P.C.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Chapter XXIA. Plea bargaining provisions were introduced into the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005, and are contained in Chapter XXIA (Sections 265A to 265L).

Question 17

Power to order execution of bond for behavior under Section 106 of Cr.P.C. is vested in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: only judicial magistrate. Section 106 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) deals with security for good behavior from persons convicted of certain offences. This power is vested in a Court of Session or a Magistrate of the first class (Judicial Magistrate).

Question 18

Which Section of Cr.P.C. defines cognizable offence?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 2(c). Section 2(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) defines a 'cognizable offence' as an offence for which, and 'cognizable case' as a case in which, a police officer may, in accordance with the First Schedule or under any other law for the time being in force, arrest without warrant.

Question 19

Under Section 3 of Evidence Act, court does not include

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Arbitrator. Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, defines 'Court' as including 'all Judges and Magistrates, and all persons, except arbitrators, legally authorized to take evidence'.

Question 20

Under which provision an arrested person has right to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 41D of Cr.P.C.. Section 41D of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) explicitly grants the 'Right of arrested person to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation'.

Question 21

Under Section 102 of Cr.P.C. who is authorized to seize stolen property?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Public officer. Section 102 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) states that 'Any police officer may seize any property which may be alleged or suspected to have been stolen, or which may be found under circumstances which create suspicion of the commission of any offence.' A police officer is a public officer.

Question 22

Which provision of Cr.P.C. deals with power of revision of High Court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 401. Section 401 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) specifically outlines the 'High Court's powers of revision'.

Question 23

Under Section 468 of Cr.P.C. for an offence punishable with imprisonment exceeding one year but not exceeding three years, the limitation period for taking cognizance is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Three year. Section 468(2)(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) stipulates that the period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence shall be three years if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding three years.

Question 24

Private alienation of property after attachment is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Void. Section 64 of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) states that 'Where an attachment has been made, any private transfer or delivery of the property attached or of any interest therein and any payment to the judgment-debtor of any debt, dividend or other monies contrary to such attachment, shall be void as against all claims enforceable under the attachment'.

Question 25

Section 75 of C.P.C. deals with

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Power to issue commission. Section 75 of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) empowers the Court to 'issue commissions' for various purposes, such as examining witnesses, local investigations, examining accounts, or making partitions.

Question 26

In C.P.C. provision for out of court settlement of suits is made under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 89. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) provides for 'Settlement of disputes outside the Court' through various alternative dispute resolution mechanisms like arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement, or mediation.

Question 27

Essential condition provided under section 100(I) of C.P.C. for preferring second appeal is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Substantial question of law. Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) states that a second appeal shall lie to the High Court only if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a 'substantial question of law'.

Question 28

If court is satisfied that a case pending before it involves a question as to validity of any Act, the Court should

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Refer the matter to the High Court. Under Section 113 of the C.P.C. and Article 228 of the Constitution, if a subordinate court is satisfied that a case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or the validity of an Act, it should refer the matter to the High Court for determination.

Question 29

Who of the following is exempted from personal appearance before court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All of these. Section 133 of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) exempts certain persons from personal appearance in court. This list includes the President, Vice-President, Speaker of the House of the People, Ministers of the Union, Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, Governors, etc. Therefore, all the mentioned categories (Ministers of Union, Ministers of State, Judges of High Court) are generally exempted.

Question 30

Period of operation of caveat under C.P.C. is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Ninety days. Section 148A(5) of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) states that a caveat, unless sooner withdrawn, shall continue in force for ninety days from the date on which it was lodged or from the date on which any application by way of appeal or revision is made in the suit or proceeding, whichever is later.

Question 31

Can a document which is not produced with the plaint and which ought to have been produced by the plaintiff, be received in the evidence on his behalf?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Only with leave of court. Order VII Rule 14(3) of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) states that a document which ought to have been produced with the plaint but was not, shall not, without the leave of the Court, be received in evidence on the plaintiff's behalf at the hearing of the suit.

Question 32

What the court can do when neither party appears when it is called for hearing?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Dismissal of suit. Order IX Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) provides that 'Where neither party appears when the suit is called on for hearing, the Court may make an order that the suit be dismissed'.

Question 33

What is maximum time granted to court by C.P.C. to draw up a decree after pronouncing Judgment?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 15 days. Order XX Rule 6A of the Code of Civil Procedure (C.P.C.) states that 'Every endeavour shall be made to ensure that the decree is drawn up as expeditiously as possible, and, in any case, within fifteen days from the date on which the judgment is pronounced'.

Question 34

In Indian Evidence Act, the principle of res gestae is codified under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 6. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with 'Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction', which is the statutory embodiment of the principle of res gestae.

Question 35

'A' is tried for murder of 'B' by administering Potassium Cyanide. The fact that A has purchased potassium cyanide just before the murder of B is relevant under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 8. Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, makes facts showing 'motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct' relevant. The purchase of potassium cyanide just before the murder would be considered 'preparation' for the crime.

Question 36

In which section of Indian Evidence Act, those conditions are mentioned when facts not otherwise relevant, are relevant

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 11. Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is titled 'When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant'. It covers situations where facts, though not directly relevant, become relevant if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact, or if they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable.

Question 37

In Evidence Act confession is defined under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: None of these. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, does not provide a specific definition for 'confession'. It only deals with the relevancy and admissibility of confessions in various sections (e.g., Sections 24 to 30).

Question 38

What is evidentiary value of admission?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: As estoppel. Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that 'Admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels under the provisions hereinafter contained'. Thus, admissions can have the evidentiary value of an estoppel.

Question 39

In which chapter of Indian Evidence Act provisions regarding Burden of proof are codified

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Chapter VII. Chapter VII of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, comprising Sections 101 to 114A, is dedicated to the provisions 'Of the Burden of Proof'.

Question 40

Evidence given by dumb witness according to section 119, shall be treated to be

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Oral Evidence. Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that 'A witness who is unable to speak may give his evidence by writing or by signs, but such writing must be written and the signs made in open Court. Evidence so given shall be deemed to be oral evidence'.

Question 41

In Preamble of Constitution, word socialist was added by

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 2 of 42nd Amendment Act. The words 'socialist' and 'secular' were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by Section 2 of the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976.

Question 42

Which of the following provisions empower President to appoint the Prime Minister?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 75. Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution states that 'The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister'.

Question 43

A money Bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha, if no action is taken within

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Fourteen days. Article 109(5) of the Indian Constitution provides that if a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations is not returned within fourteen days, it shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses.

Question 44

Chief Election Commissioner of India may be removed by

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Resolution of both houses. Article 324(5) of the Indian Constitution states that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This requires an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority, i.e., a resolution of both houses.

Question 45

The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: November 26, 1949. The Preamble to the Constitution of India explicitly states: 'IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, DO HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION'.

Question 46

In which of the following case Supreme Court has ruled by majority that Parliament can not amend Fundamental rights exercising its power under Article, 368.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Golak Nath v. Punjab. In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967), the Supreme Court, by a majority decision, ruled that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights. This position was later overturned in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), which introduced the 'Basic Structure Doctrine'.

Question 47

First women judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: M. Fatima Bivi. Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge to be appointed to the Supreme Court of India in 1989.

Question 48

What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier. The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, as per Article 324(2) of the Constitution and the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.

Question 49

Which of the constitutional provisions provides personal immunity to the President of India for his official act from answerability to any court

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 361. Article 361(1) of the Indian Constitution grants 'Protection of President and Governors and Rajpramukhs', stating that the President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.

Question 50

After declaration of financial emergency what is the maximum period of its operation without approval of President?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Two months. Article 360(2) of the Indian Constitution states that a proclamation of Financial Emergency 'shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament'.

Question 51

Which of the following statement is incorrect

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The party inviting tender is 18 years old to accept the tender. The statement 'The party inviting tender is 18 years old to accept the tender' is incorrect. The party inviting a tender makes an invitation to offer, and the party submitting the tender makes an offer. The party accepting the tender (the inviter) must be competent to contract, which includes being of legal age (18 years). However, the phrasing 'is 18 years old to accept the tender' is awkward and potentially misleading, as the age requirement applies to the capacity to enter into a contract, not merely to 'accept' in the context of receiving offers. The other statements are fundamental principles of contract law.

Question 52

Which provision of Indian Contract Act provides definition of free consent

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 14. Section 14 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines 'Free Consent'. Section 13 defines 'Consent'.

Question 53

Agreement, the meaning of which is not certain are

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Void. Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states that 'Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void'.

Question 54

In Indian Contract Act, Contingent contract is defined under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 31. Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides the definition of a 'Contingent contract'.

Question 55

Section 40 of Indian Contract Act deals

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: About persons by whom promise is to be performed. Section 40 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is titled 'Person by whom promise is to be performed' and deals with who is to perform the promise in a contract.

Question 56

In Indian Contract Act, certain relations resembling with contracts are provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Chapter V. Chapter V of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (Sections 68-72), is titled 'Of Certain Relations Resembling Those Created by Contract', commonly known as quasi-contracts.

Question 57

In Indian Contract Act, the responsibility of finder of goods is provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 71. Section 71 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with the 'Responsibility of finder of goods', stating that a person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee.

Question 58

Transfer of Property Act, 1882, came into force on

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: March 1, 1882. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, came into force on the 1st day of March, 1882.

Question 59

In Transfer of Property Act, conditions of oral transfer are provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 9. Section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deals with 'Oral Transfer', stating that a transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which a writing is not expressly required by law.

Question 60

Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act defines

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All of these. Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, provides definitions for 'Mortgage', 'mortgagor', 'mortgagee', 'mortgage-money', and 'mortgage-deed'. Therefore, it defines all the terms listed in the options.

Question 61

In Transfer of Property Act, rights and liabilities of mortgagee is provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 67 to 77. Sections 67 to 77 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, are grouped under the heading 'Rights and Liabilities of Mortgagee'.

Question 62

In Transfer of Property Act, rights of seller and buyer are provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 55. Section 55 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, specifically enumerates the 'Rights and liabilities of buyer and seller'.

Question 63

In Transfer of Property Act, effect of holding over of lease is provided under

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 116. Section 116 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deals with the 'Effect of holding over' by a lessee, which can lead to a lease from year to year or month to month.

Question 64

In Transfer of Property Act, provision regarding onerous gift is provided in:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 127. Section 127 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, specifically addresses 'Onerous gifts', which are gifts coupled with an obligation or burden.

Chhattisgarh Pre Exam 2014

100 Questions Available

Chhattisgarh Pre Exam 2014

100 Questions Available

Question 1: Indian Evidence Act consists of

Question 2: As per section 1 of Indian Evidence Act, the Act came into force on

Question 3: 'A' intentionally causes B's death partly by illegally omitting to give B food and partly by beating. A has committed the offence of

Question 4: Act done in pursuance of order of court, if done in good faith is coverable under General Exception under which of the following sections of I.P.C.,

Question 5: Under Section '41-C' of Cr.P.C. State Government shall establish police control room

Question 6: 'A' instigate 'B' to murder 'C'. B refuses to do so. A is guilty of

Question 7: In I.P.C., punishment for rioting is provided under

Question 8: A, being legally bound to appear before Raipur district judge as witness in obedience to a summons issued by court, intentionally omits to appear. A i

Question 9: 'A' knowing that 'B' has murdered 'C' assists 'B' to hide the body with intention of screening 'B' from punishment. A is liable for punishment to

Question 10: Punishment for disclosure of identity of victim of rape is provided under which of the following provision of I.P.C.

Question 11: Offences against human body are provided under which of the following chapters of I.P.C.

Question 12: 'A', a police officer tortures 'B' to induce 'B' to confess that he has committed a crime. A is guilty under which of the following provision of I.P.C

Question 13: 'A' signs his own name to a document intending that the document was signed by another person of the same name. Which of the offences defined in I.P.C

Question 14: List of cognizable and non-cognizable offences is provided under .......... of Cr.P.C.

Question 15: Section 6 of Cr.P.C. provides

Question 16: Plea bargaining is provided under which part of the Cr.P.C.

Question 17: Power to order execution of bond for behavior under Section 106 of Cr.P.C. is vested in

Question 18: Which Section of Cr.P.C. defines cognizable offence?

Question 19: Under Section 3 of Evidence Act, court does not include

Question 20: Under which provision an arrested person has right to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation

Question 21: Under Section 102 of Cr.P.C. who is authorized to seize stolen property?

Question 22: Which provision of Cr.P.C. deals with power of revision of High Court?

Question 23: Under Section 468 of Cr.P.C. for an offence punishable with imprisonment exceeding one year but not exceeding three years, the limitation period for t

Question 24: Private alienation of property after attachment is

Question 25: Section 75 of C.P.C. deals with

Question 26: In C.P.C. provision for out of court settlement of suits is made under

Question 27: Essential condition provided under section 100(I) of C.P.C. for preferring second appeal is

Question 28: If court is satisfied that a case pending before it involves a question as to validity of any Act, the Court should

Question 29: Who of the following is exempted from personal appearance before court?

Question 30: Period of operation of caveat under C.P.C. is

Question 31: Can a document which is not produced with the plaint and which ought to have been produced by the plaintiff, be received in the evidence on his behalf

Question 32: What the court can do when neither party appears when it is called for hearing?

Question 33: What is maximum time granted to court by C.P.C. to draw up a decree after pronouncing Judgment?

Question 34: In Indian Evidence Act, the principle of res gestae is codified under

Question 35: 'A' is tried for murder of 'B' by administering Potassium Cyanide. The fact that A has purchased potassium cyanide just before the murder of B is rele

Question 36: In which section of Indian Evidence Act, those conditions are mentioned when facts not otherwise relevant, are relevant

Question 37: In Evidence Act confession is defined under

Question 38: What is evidentiary value of admission?

Question 39: In which chapter of Indian Evidence Act provisions regarding Burden of proof are codified

Question 40: Evidence given by dumb witness according to section 119, shall be treated to be

Question 41: In Preamble of Constitution, word socialist was added by

Question 42: Which of the following provisions empower President to appoint the Prime Minister?

Question 43: A money Bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha, if no action is taken within

Question 44: Chief Election Commissioner of India may be removed by

Question 45: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on

Question 46: In which of the following case Supreme Court has ruled by majority that Parliament can not amend Fundamental rights exercising its power under Article

Question 47: First women judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was

Question 48: What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India?

Question 49: Which of the constitutional provisions provides personal immunity to the President of India for his official act from answerability to any court

Question 50: After declaration of financial emergency what is the maximum period of its operation without approval of President?