Question 1

A voluntarily throws into a river a ring belonging to B with intention thereby causing wrongful loss to B. A has committed-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Mischief. Section 425 of the IPC defines mischief as causing destruction or diminution of value or utility of property with intent to cause wrongful loss or damage. Throwing the ring into the river with such intent constitutes mischief.

Question 2

A witness was asked whether he was not dismissed from a post for dishonesty. He denies it. The evidence is offered to show that he was dismissed for dishonesty-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The evidence is inadmissible. Section 153 of the Indian Evidence Act states that when a witness is asked and answers any question tending to shake his credit by injuring his character, no evidence shall be given to contradict him, unless it falls under specific exceptions (like previous conviction or impartiality), which this scenario does not.

Question 3

Rules made under the provisions of M.P. Accommodation Control Act have to be sent to-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Assembly. Section 45(3) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 states that all rules made under this section shall be laid on the table of the Legislative Assembly.

Question 4

When a party refuses to produce a document which he had noticed to produce-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: He cannot use the document as evidence without the consent of opposite party or the order of the court. Section 164 of the Indian Evidence Act states that when a party refuses to produce a document which he has had notice to produce, he cannot afterwards use the document as evidence without the consent of the other party or the order of the Court.

Question 5

Where does Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961 apply?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Area specified in Schedule 1. Section 1(2) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 states that it extends to the whole of Madhya Pradesh, but shall apply in the first instance to the areas specified in Schedule I. The State Government may extend it to other areas.

Question 6

Who fixes the standard rent?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Rent Controlling Authority. Under the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, the Rent Controlling Authority is empowered to fix the standard rent (Section 7).

Question 7

M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 does apply to-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Property of Municipal Corporation used for residential purpose. Section 3 of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 lists accommodations to which the Act does not apply. It does not apply to Government property, or property of a local authority. It also does not apply to property of a Municipal Corporation used for non-residential purposes. Therefore, it does apply to property of a Municipal Corporation used for residential purposes.

Question 8

The provisions of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 will not be applicable to a newly constructed house for a period of-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Five years. Section 3(2) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 states that nothing in this Act shall apply to any accommodation constructed on or after the 1st day of January, 1948, for a period of five years from the date on which the construction of such accommodation is completed.

Question 9

Who is not a landlord for the purpose of Section 23(J) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A servant of any Government. Section 23J of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 defines specific categories of landlords who can seek eviction under special provisions. These include retired government servants, physically handicapped persons, and divorced wives. A 'servant of any Government' (i.e., currently serving) is not listed as a special category landlord under this section.

Question 10

The Rent Controlling Authority should not below the rank of-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Deputy Collector. Section 28 of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 states that the State Government may appoint any officer not below the rank of a Deputy Collector to be the Rent Controlling Authority for any area.

Question 11

Where an order for the eviction of tenant is made on the ground specified in clause (e) of sub-Section (1) of Section 12, the landlord shall not be entitled to obtain possession thereof before expiration of a period of-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Three months. Section 12(6) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 states that no order for the eviction of a tenant shall be made on the ground specified in clause (e) of sub-section (1) unless the landlord is entitled to obtain possession thereof on the expiration of a period of three months from the date of the order.

Question 12

Where a landlord has acquired any accommodation by transfer, he cannot bring a suit for eviction on the ground specified in - clause (e) or (I) sub-Section (1) of Section 12 so long?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: One year has not elapsed. Section 12(7) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 states that no order for the eviction of a tenant shall be made on the ground specified in clause (e) or clause (f) of sub-section (1) if the landlord has acquired the accommodation by transfer, unless a period of one year has elapsed from the date of the acquisition.

Question 13

An appeal shall lie against the order passed by Rent Controlling Authority to-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: District Court. Section 31 of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 states that an appeal shall lie from every order of the Rent Controlling Authority made under this Act to the District Judge having jurisdiction.

Question 14

Who is not a member of family for the purpose of M.P. Accommodation Control Act?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Grandson living separately. Section 2(e) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 defines 'family' to include spouse, son, unmarried daughter, father, mother, grandfather, grandmother, brother, unmarried sister, daughter-in-law (widow of a deceased son), and son of a deceased son, who are dependent on him. A grandson living separately, especially if not dependent or a son of a deceased son, would generally not be considered a member of the family for the Act's purposes.

Question 15

The proceeding pleading when the M.P. Accommodation Control Act. 1961 came into being will be-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Decided according to provisions of Old Act. Generally, in the absence of specific transitional provisions, pending proceedings are governed by the law in force at the time the proceedings were initiated, especially concerning substantive rights. Thus, they would be decided according to the provisions of the Old Act.

Question 16

'A' proposes, by letter, to sell a house to 'B' at a certain price. The communication of proposal is complete when-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 'B' receives the letter. Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that the communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made. Therefore, when 'B' receives the letter.

Question 17

A sells, by auction, to B a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse's unsoundness. A does-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No fraud. The Explanation to Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act states that mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless there is a duty to speak or the silence is equivalent to speech. In a typical auction sale, the principle of 'caveat emptor' (buyer beware) applies, and mere silence about a defect is generally not fraud unless specific circumstances create a duty to disclose.

Question 18

Where both parties are under mistake as to matter of fact, the agreement will be-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Void. Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act states that where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.

Question 19

What will be effect of mistakes as to law in force in India on the agreement?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Not voidable. Section 21 of the Indian Contract Act states that a contract is not voidable merely because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force in India.

Question 20

A promises, for no consideration, to give to B Rs. 1,000. This agreement is—

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Void. Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act states that an agreement made without consideration is void, unless it falls under certain specified exceptions (e.g., natural love and affection, compensation for past voluntary service, promise to pay time-barred debt, gift). A simple promise for no consideration is void.

Question 21

Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Void. Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act states that agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.

Question 22

Where no application is made and no time is specified for performance of promise, there the agreement must be performed within-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Reasonable time. Section 46 of the Indian Contract Act states that where no time for performance is specified, the engagement must be performed within a reasonable time. What constitutes a reasonable time is a question of fact in each case.

Question 23

A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. This agreement is-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Void. An agreement to discover treasure by magic is an agreement to do an impossible act and is also against public policy (unlawful). Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act states that an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void.

Question 24

In case of an alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and the other illegal-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The legal branch alone can be enforced. Section 58 of the Indian Contract Act states that in the case of an alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and the other illegal, the legal branch alone can be enforced.

Question 25

A supplies B, a lunatic, with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. Whether A is entitled for reimbursement from the property of B?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act states that if a person incapable of entering into a contract (like a lunatic) is supplied with necessaries suited to his condition in life, the person who furnished such supplies is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of such incapable person.

Question 26

A saves B's property from fire. Circumstances show that he intended to act gratuitously. Whether A is entitled for compensation from B?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act deals with the obligation of a person enjoying the benefit of a non-gratuitous act. It states that if a person lawfully does anything for another, not intending to do so gratuitously, and the other person enjoys the benefit, the latter is bound to make compensation. However, the question states A intended to act gratuitously, which would generally mean no entitlement to compensation under Section 70. The marked answer 'Yes' contradicts the premise of gratuitous intent, implying a non-gratuitous act or a different legal basis for compensation.

Question 27

If in any case in which the defendant sets up counter-claim, the suit of the plaintiff is stayed, discontinued or dismissed the counter claim-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Nevertheless be proceeded with. Order VIII Rule 6D of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) states that if in any case in which the defendant sets up a counter-claim, the suit of the plaintiff is stayed, discontinued or dismissed, the counter-claim may nevertheless be proceeded with.

Question 28

Where the decree is for the payment of sum of money exceeding five thousand rupees the period of civil prison?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Shall not exceed three months. Section 58(1)(b) of the CPC states that a person shall not be committed to the civil prison in execution of a decree for the payment of money for a period exceeding three months, where the amount of the decree exceeds five thousand rupees.

Question 29

Caveat shall not remain in force after expiry of-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Ninety days. Section 148A(5) of the CPC states that a caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of ninety days from the date on which it was lodged unless it has been renewed.

Question 30

If a party who has obtained an order for leave to amend pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he shall not be permitted to do without leave of Court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Fourteen days. Order VI Rule 18 of the CPC states that if a party who has obtained an order for leave to amend does not amend accordingly within the time limited for that purpose by the order, or if no time is thereby limited then within fourteen days from the date of the order, he shall not be permitted to amend after the expiration of such limited time as aforesaid or of such fourteen days, as the case may be, unless the time is extended by the Court.

Question 31

Where the plaint has been rejected the plaintiff on the same cause of action?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: May present a fresh suit. Order VII Rule 13 of the CPC states that the rejection of the plaint on any of the grounds hereinbefore mentioned shall not of its own force preclude the plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action.

Question 32

Where the suit is dismissed under rule 2 or 3 of order 9 C.P.C., the plaintiff?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: May bring a fresh suit subject to Law of Limitation. Order IX Rule 4 of the CPC states that where a suit is dismissed under rule 2 or rule 3, the plaintiff may (subject to the law of limitation) bring a fresh suit, or he may apply for an order to set the dismissal aside.

Question 33

In which condition the officer in charge of the prison may refuse to produce the prisoner for evidence despite Court's order?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Where the Medical Officer has certified that prisoner is unfit to be removed by the reason of sickness. Section 269 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) allows the officer in charge of a prison to abstain from producing a person if a medical officer certifies that the person is unfit to be removed from the prison by reason of sickness or infirmity.

Question 34

Where any property has been attached in execution of decree and the court, for any reason, passes an order dismissing the execution-application but omits to give any direction as to attachment?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Attachment shall be deemed to have ceased. Order XXI Rule 57(2) of the CPC states that where an order is made by the Court dismissing the application for the execution of the decree, the attachment shall cease.

Question 35

Where any party dies after conclusion but before pronouncement of Judgment?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The suit shall not abate. Order XXII Rule 6 of the CPC states that notwithstanding anything contained in the foregoing rules, whether the cause of action survives or not, there shall be no abatement by reason of the death of either party between the conclusion of the hearing and the pronouncement of the judgment.

Question 36

Where a decree of compromise which was not lawful, there-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No suit shall lie to set aside such decree. Order XXIII Rule 3A of the CPC states that no suit shall lie to set aside a decree on the ground that the compromise on which the decree is based was not lawful. The law provides for challenging the lawfulness of the compromise in the same proceedings.

Question 37

Where an indigent person succeeds, the court fee shall be recovered?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: By the State Government. Order XXXIII Rule 10 of the CPC states that where the plaintiff succeeds in the suit, the Court shall calculate the amount of court-fees which would have been paid by the plaintiff if he had not been permitted to sue as an indigent person, and such amount shall be recoverable by the State Government from any party ordered by the decree to pay the same, and shall be a first charge on the subject-matter of the suit.

Question 38

An attachment made before judgment in a suit which is dismissed for default-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Shall not become revived merely by reason of the facts that order for dismissal of the suit for default has been set aside. Order XXXVIII Rule 11A(2) of the CPC states that an attachment made before judgment in a suit which is dismissed for default shall not be revived merely by reason of the fact that the order for the dismissal of the suit for default has been set aside and the suit has been restored.

Question 39

If the offence be punishable with fine only, and accused has been awarded with fifty rupees fine then, the period of imprisonment in default shall-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Not exceeding one month. As per Section 67(a) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), if the fine does not exceed fifty rupees, the imprisonment for default of payment shall not exceed two months. While 'not exceeding one month' (Option A) is a possible period within this maximum, 'not exceeding two months' (Option B) is the statutory maximum for a fine of fifty rupees.

Question 40

'A' instigates 'B' to give false evidence. Here, if 'B' does not give false evidence, what offence 'A' has committed?.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Offence punishable with imprisonment of any description provided for that offence for a term which may extend to one-eighth part of the longest term provided for that offence and with fine. Section 116 of the IPC deals with abetment of an offence punishable with imprisonment if the offence is not committed. The punishment is imprisonment of any description provided for the offence for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest term provided for that offence, or with such fine as is provided for the offence, or with both. Option (C) incorrectly states 'one-eighth part' instead of 'one-fourth part'.

Question 41

What punishment is provided for Dowry death?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Not less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life. Section 304B of the IPC (Dowry Death) states that whoever commits dowry death shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.

Question 42

Which is not the 'stolen property'?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Possession whereof was obtained by cheating. Section 410 of the IPC defines 'stolen property' as property the possession whereof has been transferred by theft, or by extortion, or by robbery, or by criminal misappropriation or by criminal breach of trust. Property obtained by cheating is not included in this definition.

Question 43

A police officer arrested and detained a person in the lockup despite production of a bail order from the Court. Police officer is guilty of-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Wrongful confinement. Wrongful confinement (Section 340 IPC) is defined as wrongfully restraining any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits. Detaining a person in lockup despite a bail order clearly falls under wrongful confinement.

Question 44

What must be the age of a minor with regard to the offence of kidnapping?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Under sixteen years of age, if a male, and under eighteen years of age, if a female. Section 361 of the IPC defines 'kidnapping from lawful guardianship' as taking or enticing any minor under sixteen years of age if a male, or under eighteen years of age if a female, out of the keeping of the lawful guardian without consent.

Question 45

What is not correct about 'Rape'?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Death penalty may be awarded.. As per the law in 1998 (when this exam was conducted), the death penalty could not be awarded for rape. The death penalty for rape was introduced by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, for specific aggravated circumstances. Options A, B, and C were correct statements about rape under the IPC in 1998 (with the age of consent being 16 and marital rape exception for wives above 15).

Question 46

'A' threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning 'B', unless 'B' gives him money. He thus induces 'B' to give him money. A has committed-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Extortion. Section 383 of the IPC defines extortion as intentionally putting any person in fear of any injury and thereby dishonestly inducing the person to deliver property. Threatening to publish a defamatory libel to obtain money falls squarely under this definition.

Question 47

What is the offence preparation whereof is also punishable?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Dacoity. Generally, preparation to commit an offence is not punishable under the IPC. However, Section 399 of the IPC specifically makes 'Preparation to commit dacoity' a punishable offence.

Question 48

A makes an attempt to pick the pocket of B by thrusting his hand into B's pocket. A fails in the attempt in consequence of B's having nothing in his pocket. A is guilty of-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Attempt to theft. This is an example of an attempt to commit theft. Section 511 of the IPC punishes attempts to commit offences. Even if the pocket was empty, A had the intention and took a substantial step towards committing theft.

Question 49

Who among the following is not entitled to exemption from personal appearance in the Court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Collector. Section 133 of the CPC exempts certain persons from personal appearance in court, including Rulers of former Indian States, Chairmen of State Legislative Councils, and Ministers of the Union or States. A Collector is not typically exempted under this section for routine court appearances.

Question 50

What punishment may be awarded to the person whose act is covered under general exceptions?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No punishment. Chapter IV of the IPC (Sections 76 to 106) deals with General Exceptions. An act covered by a general exception is not considered an offence, and therefore, no punishment can be awarded.

Question 51

What sentence an Assistant Sessions Judge may award?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Any sentence authorised by law except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years. Section 28(3) of the CrPC states that an Assistant Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorized by law, except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.

Question 52

A person arrested by a police officer may be kept in custody for-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Twenty-four hours. Section 57 of the CrPC states that no police officer shall detain in custody a person arrested without warrant for a longer period than twenty-four hours, exclusive of the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court, without a special order from a Magistrate under Section 167.

Question 53

How much amount of monthly maintenance may be awarded in favour of a wife under Section 125 of Cr.P.C.?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Any Amount. Prior to the 2001 amendment, Section 125 of the CrPC had a maximum limit of Rs. 500 for monthly maintenance. However, the 2001 amendment removed this upper limit, allowing for 'any amount' as deemed fit by the court. The marked answer reflects the post-2001 position.

Question 54

In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable the whole case shall be deemed to be-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Cognizable. Section 155(4) of the CrPC states that where a case relates to two or more offences of which at least one is cognizable, the case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case, notwithstanding that the other offences are non-cognizable.

Question 55

What is true about Court of Session?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: It cannot take cognizance without committal. Section 193 of the CrPC states that, except as otherwise expressly provided, no Court of Session shall take cognizance of any offence as a Court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it by a Magistrate.

Question 56

No person shall be appointed as a Public Prosecutor for the District unless his name appears in the panel of names prepared by-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: District Magistrate. Section 24(4) of the CrPC states that the District Magistrate shall, in consultation with the Sessions Judge, prepare a panel of names of persons fit to be appointed as Public Prosecutors or Additional Public Prosecutors for the district.

Question 57

How much punishment may be awarded to an accused who is found guilty under a summary trial?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Not exceeding three months. Section 262(2) of the CrPC states that no sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding three months shall be passed in the case of any conviction under the Chapter on Summary Trials.

Question 58

Whether an accused may be a competent witness in his own defence?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: If he applies in writing on his own request. Section 315(1) of the CrPC states that any person accused of an offence shall be a competent witness for the defence and may give evidence on oath, provided he shall not be called as a witness except on his own request in writing.

Question 59

Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion, after hearing the evidence for prosecution and the accused, that the accused is guilty, and that he ought to receive a severe punishment, then such Magistrate is empowered to inflict, the Magistrate may forward the case to-

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Chief Judicial Magistrate. Section 325 of the CrPC provides that if a Magistrate is of the opinion that the accused is guilty and ought to receive a punishment more severe than he is empowered to inflict, he may submit his proceedings and forward the accused to the Chief Judicial Magistrate to whom he is subordinate.

Question 60

In one trial A is awarded with the sentence which is not appealable whereas sentence against B is appealable. Whether A can file an appeal against his sentence?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Yes. While Section 376 CrPC bars appeals in petty cases, judicial interpretation often allows an appeal even for a non-appealable sentence if a co-accused in the same trial has an appealable sentence, to ensure consistency and avoid conflicting findings.

Question 61

If in a criminal appeal an accused dies and his near relatives wish to continue the appeal, then within how much period they must apply?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Thirty days. Section 394(2) of the CrPC states that where an appeal is against a conviction and an appellant dies, his near relative may, within thirty days of the death of the appellant, apply to the Appellate Court for leave to continue the appeal.

Question 62

When can a trial court release an accused on bail under Section 389(3) of Cr.P.C. after conviction?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years. Section 389(3) of the CrPC allows a convicted person to be released on bail by the trial court if they are already on bail and the offence is bailable, or if the sentence is of imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years.

Question 63

What is effect of trial conducted in wrong place?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Vitiated if caused failure of justice. Section 462 of the CrPC states that no finding, sentence or order of any Criminal Court shall be set aside merely on the ground that the inquiry, trial or other proceeding took place in a wrong local area, unless it appears that such error has in fact occasioned a failure of justice.

Question 64

When will proceedings be vitiated if the Magistrate is not empowered to do so?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Tries an offender summarily. Section 461 of the CrPC lists irregularities which vitiate proceedings. Among them, if a Magistrate, not being empowered by law, tries an offender summarily (Section 461(l)), the proceedings are vitiated. Other actions listed in options A, B, and D, if done by a Magistrate not empowered, do not vitiate proceedings if done in good faith (Section 460).

M.P Civil Jugde Pre Exam 1998

199 Questions Available

M.P Civil Jugde Pre Exam 1998

199 Questions Available

Question 1: A voluntarily throws into a river a ring belonging to B with intention thereby causing wrongful loss to B. A has committed-

Question 2: A witness was asked whether he was not dismissed from a post for dishonesty. He denies it. The evidence is offered to show that he was dismissed for d

Question 3: Rules made under the provisions of M.P. Accommodation Control Act have to be sent to-

Question 4: When a party refuses to produce a document which he had noticed to produce-

Question 5: Where does Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961 apply?

Question 6: Who fixes the standard rent?

Question 7: M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 does apply to-

Question 8: The provisions of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 will not be applicable to a newly constructed house for a period of-

Question 9: Who is not a landlord for the purpose of Section 23(J) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961?

Question 10: The Rent Controlling Authority should not below the rank of-

Question 11: Where an order for the eviction of tenant is made on the ground specified in clause (e) of sub-Section (1) of Section 12, the landlord shall not be en

Question 12: Where a landlord has acquired any accommodation by transfer, he cannot bring a suit for eviction on the ground specified in - clause (e) or (I) sub-Se

Question 13: An appeal shall lie against the order passed by Rent Controlling Authority to-

Question 14: Who is not a member of family for the purpose of M.P. Accommodation Control Act?

Question 15: The proceeding pleading when the M.P. Accommodation Control Act. 1961 came into being will be-

Question 16: 'A' proposes, by letter, to sell a house to 'B' at a certain price. The communication of proposal is complete when-

Question 17: A sells, by auction, to B a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse's unsoundness. A does-

Question 18: Where both parties are under mistake as to matter of fact, the agreement will be-

Question 19: What will be effect of mistakes as to law in force in India on the agreement?

Question 20: A promises, for no consideration, to give to B Rs. 1,000. This agreement is—

Question 21: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are-

Question 22: Where no application is made and no time is specified for performance of promise, there the agreement must be performed within-

Question 23: A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. This agreement is-

Question 24: In case of an alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and the other illegal-

Question 25: A supplies B, a lunatic, with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. Whether A is entitled for reimbursement from the property of B?

Question 26: A saves B's property from fire. Circumstances show that he intended to act gratuitously. Whether A is entitled for compensation from B?

Question 27: If in any case in which the defendant sets up counter-claim, the suit of the plaintiff is stayed, discontinued or dismissed the counter claim-

Question 28: Where the decree is for the payment of sum of money exceeding five thousand rupees the period of civil prison?

Question 29: Caveat shall not remain in force after expiry of-

Question 30: If a party who has obtained an order for leave to amend pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he shall not be permitted to do without

Question 31: Where the plaint has been rejected the plaintiff on the same cause of action?

Question 32: Where the suit is dismissed under rule 2 or 3 of order 9 C.P.C., the plaintiff?

Question 33: In which condition the officer in charge of the prison may refuse to produce the prisoner for evidence despite Court's order?

Question 34: Where any property has been attached in execution of decree and the court, for any reason, passes an order dismissing the execution-application but om

Question 35: Where any party dies after conclusion but before pronouncement of Judgment?

Question 36: Where a decree of compromise which was not lawful, there-

Question 37: Where an indigent person succeeds, the court fee shall be recovered?

Question 38: An attachment made before judgment in a suit which is dismissed for default-

Question 39: If the offence be punishable with fine only, and accused has been awarded with fifty rupees fine then, the period of imprisonment in default shall-

Question 40: 'A' instigates 'B' to give false evidence. Here, if 'B' does not give false evidence, what offence 'A' has committed?.

Question 41: What punishment is provided for Dowry death?

Question 42: Which is not the 'stolen property'?

Question 43: A police officer arrested and detained a person in the lockup despite production of a bail order from the Court. Police officer is guilty of-

Question 44: What must be the age of a minor with regard to the offence of kidnapping?

Question 45: What is not correct about 'Rape'?

Question 46: 'A' threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning 'B', unless 'B' gives him money. He thus induces 'B' to give him money. A has committed-

Question 47: What is the offence preparation whereof is also punishable?

Question 48: A makes an attempt to pick the pocket of B by thrusting his hand into B's pocket. A fails in the attempt in consequence of B's having nothing in his p

Question 49: Who among the following is not entitled to exemption from personal appearance in the Court?

Question 50: What punishment may be awarded to the person whose act is covered under general exceptions?