Question 1

Which provision of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 deals with permission to enter into the limited period tenancy and for grant of certificate for recovery of possession?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 8. Section 8 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, specifically deals with 'Limited Period Tenancy' and the procedure for recovery of possession under such tenancy.

Question 2

In which of the following situations, the general principle of presumption of innocence of a child in conflict with law shall not be applicable?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Where the Juvenile Justice Board has passed an order under Section 15 read with Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act that the child should be tried as an adult.. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, allows for children between 16-18 years, who commit heinous offences, to be tried as adults if the Juvenile Justice Board conducts a preliminary assessment and passes an order under Section 15 read with Section 18(3). In such a scenario, the child is no longer treated under the juvenile justice system for the purpose of trial, and the presumption of innocence as a child would not apply in the same way as they are tried under the adult criminal justice system.

Question 3

A Police Officer receives a sum of Rs. 5000/- as fine from violator. He deposits the amount in the Treasury three months after the stipulated period. He commits:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Offence punishable under Section 409 IPC.. A police officer receiving fines is a public servant entrusted with public money. Delaying the deposit of this money beyond the stipulated period, especially with implied dishonest intent (as suggested by the context of a legal question about committing an offence), constitutes criminal breach of trust by a public servant, which is punishable under Section 409 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

Question 4

Under which provision of law, the Court while considering the case of a person convicted for an offence not punishable with death or Imprisonment of life, is under an obligation to call for the report of Probation Officer?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act.. Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, deals with the power of the court to release certain offenders on probation of good conduct. It states that before making an order under this section, the court shall take into consideration the report, if any, of the probation officer. This implies an obligation to consider such a report when contemplating probation.

Question 5

A person (payee) signs a blank cheque and gives the same to another person. (holder) and the holder fills up the blank space pertaining to amount and date and presents the same in his bank account and it is dishonoured. In such a situation, which of the following statement would be correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The holder will be entitled to maintain a complaint filed upon the cheque being dishonoured upon being presented in the bank.. This scenario describes an 'inchoate stamped instrument' under Section 20 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. When a person signs and delivers a blank or incomplete negotiable instrument, they give prima facie authority to the holder to complete it. If the holder fills it up within the scope of authority and it is dishonoured, a complaint under Section 138 NI Act is maintainable.

Question 6

Under the provisions of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, a landlord has a right to Inspect the premises let out by him. Which of the following statement with reference to the Inspection is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: None of the above.. The question asks for the incorrect statement. As per the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, the conditions mentioned in options (1), (2), and (3) are generally correct provisions for inspection. Therefore, if all are correct, 'None of the above' is the incorrect statement to choose as the answer.

Question 7

A suit alleging 'public nuisance' can be Instituted by: (A) Advocate General of the State. (B) By two or more persons, who have suffered the damage. (C) By two or more persons, with the leave of the Court, even though no special damage has been caused to them. (D) A member of the local body. Which o

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: (A) & (C). As per Section 91 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit for public nuisance can be instituted by the Advocate General, or by two or more persons with the leave of the Court, even though no special damage has been caused to them.

Question 8

Ashok lets a house to Bharat for five years. Bharat underlets the house to Kishore at a monthly rent of Rs. 2,000/-. The five years expire, but Kishore continues in possession of the houseand pays the rent to Ashok. What Is the status of Kishore?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Tenant holding over.. When a sub-tenant (Kishore) continues in possession after the expiry of the head lease and the head landlord (Ashok) accepts rent from him, a new tenancy is created between them. This situation is legally termed as 'tenant holding over' or 'tenancy by sufferance' which converts into a periodic tenancy upon acceptance of rent.

Question 9

The executive power of the State is vested in:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The Governor.. As per Article 154 of the Indian Constitution, the executive power of the State is vested in the Governor and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.

Question 10

Decree for payment of money passed against a woman cannot be executed:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: by her arrest and detention in prison.. Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, specifically prohibits the arrest or detention in prison of a woman in execution of a decree for the payment of money.

Question 11

"Where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes any portion of his claim, he shall not afterward sue in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished". The genesis of this principle lies in:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Order II Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. This statement is a direct quote from Order II Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which deals with the rule against splitting of claims.

Question 12

On rejection of plaint under provisions of Order VII Rule 11 of Civil Procedure, 1908, presenting of a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action, is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: On its own force, does not preclude the plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint.. Rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11 CPC is not a decree and does not bar a fresh suit on the same cause of action, provided the defects leading to the rejection are rectified. It is not a decision on the merits of the case.

Question 13

'Rule of Heydon's case' is also known as:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Purposive construction.. Heydon's Rule (or the Mischief Rule) is a principle of statutory interpretation that directs courts to look at the 'mischief' or defect that the statute was intended to remedy. This is essentially a purposive approach to construction.

Question 14

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Judicial proceeding before courts.. Section 1 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that it applies to all judicial proceedings in or before any Court, but not to affidavits presented to any Court or officer, nor to proceedings before an arbitrator.

Question 15

Who amongst the following cannot be appointed as Advocate General:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: An advocate having 07 years of practice at Bar.. Article 165 of the Indian Constitution states that a person to be appointed Advocate General must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court. Article 217(2) requires a person to have been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years to be qualified as a High Court Judge. Therefore, an advocate with only 7 years of practice is not qualified.

Question 16

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: An agreement made without consideration is void irrespective of the circumstances.. The statement 'An agreement made without consideration is void irrespective of the circumstances' is incorrect. Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides several exceptions where an agreement without consideration is valid (e.g., natural love and affection, compensation for past voluntary service, time-barred debt). The other options are generally correct statements under the Indian Contract Act.

Question 17

For the purpose of Limitation Act, 1963, a suit in the case of pauper, is instituted:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: When application for leave to sue as a pauper is made.. As per the Explanation to Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit by an indigent person (pauper) is instituted when the application for leave to sue as an indigent person is presented to the proper officer.

Question 18

Which of the following contracts can be enforced?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Purchase of a share of a partner in a firm.. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963: (1) Contracts where compensation is adequate relief are generally not specifically enforceable (Section 14(1)(a)). (2) Contracts which are in their nature determinable are not specifically enforceable (Section 14(1)(c)). (3) Contracts involving continuous duty which the court cannot supervise are not specifically enforceable (Section 14(1)(d)). A contract for the purchase of a share of a partner in a firm is generally specifically enforceable, as shares in a partnership are often considered unique or not readily available, making monetary compensation inadequate.

Question 19

Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which deals with transfer by unauthorised person who subsequently acquires interest in immovable property transferred, underlines doctrine of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Estoppel by deed.. Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is based on the principle of estoppel, often referred to as the 'doctrine of feeding the grant by estoppel'. It prevents a person who has made a representation and transferred property without title from denying the transfer if they subsequently acquire title.

Question 20

Which provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 bars entertainment of application to review an order made on an application for a review of a decree or order passed or made on a review:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Order XLVII Rule 9. Order XLVII Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, explicitly states that no application for review of an order rejecting a previous application for review shall be entertained.

Question 21

What is the remedy available to an aggrieved party against a final order passed by the Rent Tribunal constituted under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act 2001?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Appeal under Section 19(6) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001.. Section 19(6) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, provides for an appeal to the Rent Appellate Tribunal against an order of the Rent Tribunal.

Question 22

'A' and 'B' contract that 'A' shall build a house for 'B' at a fixed price. The order in which reciprocal promises are to be performed was not fixed. What shall be the order of performance?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A's promise to build the house must be performed before B's promise to pay for the house.. This is an example of reciprocal promises that are dependent. Generally, the work (building the house) must be completed or substantially performed before payment is due, unless otherwise agreed. This is implied by the nature of the contract.

Question 23

The rule of construction 'Nocsitur a soclis' means:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The meaning of a word is to be judged by the company it keeps.. Noscitur a sociis is a rule of statutory interpretation where the meaning of an unclear word or phrase can be determined by the words immediately surrounding it. It literally means 'it is known by its associates'.

Question 24

Which of the Act & Regulations cannot be declared unconstitutional by High Courts and Supreme Court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Acts & Regulations enlisted in Schedule IX of the Constitution.. The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was created to protect certain laws from judicial review on the ground that they violate fundamental rights. While the Supreme Court has clarified that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution, its primary purpose and historical intent was to provide immunity from judicial review. Compared to the other options, which are clearly subject to judicial review, the Ninth Schedule offers the most protection.

Question 25

Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record were inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: In the form of Section 65-B w.e.f. 17.10.2000.. Section 65B, dealing with the admissibility of electronic records, was inserted into the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, by the Information Technology Act, 2000, which came into force on 17.10.2000.

Question 26

A mutual mistake of the parties in an Instrument, which does not express their real intention, can be got rectified by either party to the instrument:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: By instituting a suit under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.. Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, specifically provides for the rectification of instruments where, through fraud or a mutual mistake of the parties, a contract or other instrument in writing does not express their real intention.

Question 27

Power to amend the issue or frame additional issues prior to passing of a decree vests in a Court by virtue of which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Order XIV Rule 5. Order XIV Rule 5 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, deals with the power of the Court to amend and strike out issues, and to frame additional issues at any time before passing a decree.

Question 28

A Judge of High Court may by writing under his hand, resign his office. To whom such resignation should be addressed?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: President of India.. Article 217(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution states that a Judge of a High Court may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.

Question 29

In case of repugnancy between the law made by the Parliament and law made by the State Legislature, with respect to any matter enumerated in concurrent list:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: by virtue of Article 254 of Constitution of India, law made by Parliament shall prevail.. Article 254 of the Indian Constitution deals with the doctrine of repugnancy. It states that if a law made by the State Legislature is repugnant to a law made by Parliament with respect to a matter enumerated in the Concurrent List, then the law made by Parliament shall prevail.

Question 30

Which provision of the Constitution of India abolished 'Untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 17. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution explicitly abolishes 'Untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form.

Question 31

Complete the statement-A Court cannot issue commission:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: to collect evidence.. Order XXVI of the CPC specifies various purposes for which commissions can be issued, such as examining witnesses (Rule 1), making local investigations (Rule 9), examining accounts (Rule 11), and making partitions (Rule 13). While the ultimate goal of these commissions is to gather evidence, a court does not issue a commission for the general, undefined purpose 'to collect evidence'. Commissions are issued for specific, defined tasks of evidence gathering.

Question 32

Which of the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that the objection regarding territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction has to be raised at the first available opportunity?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 21. Section 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, specifically states that no objection as to the place of suing (territorial jurisdiction) or as to the pecuniary limits of the jurisdiction of a Court shall be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity.

Question 33

The words "SOCIALIST SECULAR" were inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution by which constitutional amendment?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Forty Second amendment. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Question 34

Which provision of the Constitution confers upon a High Court the power to punish for contempt of itself?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 215. Article 215 of the Indian Constitution declares that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court, including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

Question 35

Which of the following facts are required to be proved?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: None of the above.. Section 57 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, lists facts of which the Court must take judicial notice. These include all laws in force in India, public festivals and holidays notified in the Official Gazette, and the rules of the road. Since these are judicially noticeable, they do not need to be proved. Therefore, 'None of the above' is the correct answer, implying that none of the listed facts are required to be proved.

Question 36

The period of limitation for filing a suit to set aside transfer of property made by a guardian of a ward, by the ward's legal representative, when the ward dies before attaining majority, is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Three years from the date of death of the ward.. Article 60 of the Limitation Act, 1963, provides a period of three years for a suit to set aside a transfer of property by a guardian, from the date when the ward attains majority, or if the ward dies before attaining majority, then three years from the date of the ward's death.

Question 37

Under which provision of Code of Civil Procedure, restoration or setting aside of orders passed ex parte can be sought regarding an application filed under Order XXI of CPC which has been dismissed for non appearance or decided ex parte?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Order XXI Rule 106. Order XXI Rule 106 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, specifically provides for setting aside orders passed ex parte or for restoration of applications dismissed for default in execution proceedings (applications under Order XXI).

Question 38

The period of limitation for filing a suit relating to tort against one who, having right to use property for specific purpose, perverts it to other purpose is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Three years from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person injured.. For torts not specifically provided for in the Limitation Act, 1963, Article 113 provides a limitation period of three years from when the right to sue accrues. The perversion of property use is a continuous wrong, and the right to sue accrues when the perversion first becomes known.

Question 39

The principle of 'force majeure' emanates from which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 56. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with 'Agreement to do impossible act' and the doctrine of frustration of contract. This section embodies the principle of force majeure or impossibility of performance.

Question 40

Under which provision, can the Court issue a warrant of arrest against a person released on bail and require him to furnish sufficient sureties?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 443 Cr.P.C.. Section 443 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, grants the High Court or Court of Session the power to order sufficient bail when the bail first taken is insufficient, including directing the arrest and recommitment to custody unless sufficient sureties are furnished.

Question 41

In which of the following, the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that in a case arising from Negotiable Instruments Act, successive sentences may be directed to run concurrently if both transactions are part of single transaction?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: (2010) 5 SCC 663, Damodar S. Prahbu v. Sayed Babalal H.. In the case of Damodar S. Prabhu v. Sayed Babalal H., (2010) 5 SCC 663, the Supreme Court discussed various aspects of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, including the possibility of concurrent sentences for multiple dishonoured cheques arising from a single transaction.

Question 42

Which provision of Indian Evidence Act stipulates that the fact of a woman being habituated to sexual intercourse will not be relevant on the issue of consent in a prosecution for rape or outraging the modesty of the said woman?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 53-A. Section 53A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, specifically states that in a prosecution for rape or attempt to commit rape, the evidence of the character of the victim or of her previous sexual experience with any person shall not be relevant on the issue of consent or quality of consent.

Question 43

In reference to the trial of summons cases by a Magistrate, which of the following statements is correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: There is no requirement for the Court to hear the accused and the particulars of the offence shall be stated to him.. In summons cases (Chapter XX Cr.P.C.), Section 251 Cr.P.C. states that when the accused appears, the particulars of the offence shall be stated to him, and he shall be asked whether he pleads guilty, but it shall not be necessary to frame a formal charge. There is no provision for discharge in summons cases in the same manner as in warrant cases.

Question 44

Ram while going on pilgrimage, entrusted a box containing jewellery to his neighbor Shayam. Shayam dishonestly with the intent to commit mischief, breaks open the box without having any authority. Shayam has committed the offence of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 462 of Indian Penal Code.. Section 462 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, specifically deals with 'Punishment for dishonestly or fraudulently breaking open receptacle containing property'. Shayam was entrusted with the box (receptacle) and dishonestly broke it open, which perfectly fits this description.

Question 45

In which celebrated judgment, did the Hon'ble Supreme Court classified the witnesses into three categories (i) wholly reliable, (ii) wholly unreliable, (iii) neither wholly reliable nor wholly unreliable?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: AIR 1957 SC 614, Vadivelu Thevar v. State of Madras.. The Supreme Court in Vadivelu Thevar v. State of Madras, AIR 1957 SC 614, famously classified witnesses into three categories: (i) wholly reliable, (ii) wholly unreliable, and (iii) neither wholly reliable nor wholly unreliable (partially reliable).

Question 46

When a child in conflict with law is in custody while undergoing trial, is declared adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act upon crossing the age of 18 years during the course of trial. Which of the following option is available to the trial court in s

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Send the child to a place of safety.. As per Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, if a child in conflict with law, who is being tried as an adult for a heinous offence, completes 18 years of age during the inquiry, and is found guilty, the Board may order him to be sent to a place of safety until he attains the age of 21 years, and thereafter be transferred to a jail.

Question 47

Under which provision of law, a body Incorporate is required to appoint an authorized representative for the purpose of inquiry or trial before a criminal court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 305 of Cr.P.C.. Section 305 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, specifically provides that a corporation or a registered society, when accused of an offence, may appoint a representative for the purpose of inquiry or trial, and such representative shall not be required to be present in person.

Question 48

'वह आदमी आ रहा है', वाक्य में 'वह' की व्याकरणिक कोटि है;

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 49

'नौकर चिट्ठी लाया', वाक्य में क्रिया है;

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 50

'कसौटी' शब्द है;

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 51

निम्न में से कौनसा 'नि' उपसर्ग से निर्मित शब्द है?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 52

निम्न में से कौनसा वाक्य अशुद्ध है?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 53

निम्न में से कौनसा सही विलोम वर्ग नहीं है?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 54

निम्न में से कौनसा शब्द-युग्म अर्थ की दृष्टि रो त्रुटिपूर्ण है?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 55

Which of the following statements is correct? (A) The presumption under Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act would be attracted, if the marriage of the accused and the deceased took place more than 7 years prior to the suicide of the woman and cruelty soon before death is established by the pros

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 56

Which of the following can not be a ground to deny bail to a person, who is apparently a child in conflict with law?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 57

Kalu prosecutes Khema for stealing a car from him, Khema Is convicted. Kalu afterwards sues Ganesh for the car which Khema had sold to him before his conviction. The Judgment of conviction of Khema in the suit between Kalu and Ganesh is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 58

Which provision of Cr.P.C. provides protection against double jeopardy?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 59

Which of the following irregularities vitiate the proceedings, if any Magistrate not being empowered by law in this behalf, dues nay of the following things?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 60

In which judgment, the Hon'ble Supreme Court laid down that a complaint based on a second or successive dishonor of cheque is maintainable, if no complaint based on an earlier dishonor of cheque followed by statutory notice issued on the basis thereof had been filed:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 61

Under which provision of law, the Sessions Court can make a reference to the High Court regarding the validity of any Act, Ordinance or Regulation, the determination of which is necessary for the disposal of the case?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 62

Which of the following provisions of Indian Evidence Act permits evidence recorded in one case to be considered relevant in a subsequent proceeding?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 63

Under which provision of law, can a court direct any person to write any words or figures for comparison of handwriting?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 64

Which provision of Cr.P.C. empowers a criminal court to recall and re-examine witnesses in a criminal case?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Rajasthan Judiciary 2019

100 Questions Available

Rajasthan Judiciary 2019

100 Questions Available

Question 1: Which provision of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 deals with permission to enter into the limited period tenancy and for grant of certificate for re

Question 2: In which of the following situations, the general principle of presumption of innocence of a child in conflict with law shall not be applicable?

Question 3: A Police Officer receives a sum of Rs. 5000/- as fine from violator. He deposits the amount in the Treasury three months after the stipulated period.

Question 4: Under which provision of law, the Court while considering the case of a person convicted for an offence not punishable with death or Imprisonment of l

Question 5: A person (payee) signs a blank cheque and gives the same to another person. (holder) and the holder fills up the blank space pertaining to amount and

Question 6: Under the provisions of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, a landlord has a right to Inspect the premises let out by him. Which of the following statem

Question 7: A suit alleging 'public nuisance' can be Instituted by: (A) Advocate General of the State. (B) By two or more persons, who have suffered the damage. (

Question 8: Ashok lets a house to Bharat for five years. Bharat underlets the house to Kishore at a monthly rent of Rs. 2,000/-. The five years expire, but Kishor

Question 9: The executive power of the State is vested in:

Question 10: Decree for payment of money passed against a woman cannot be executed:

Question 11: "Where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes any portion of his claim, he shall not afterward sue in respect of the po

Question 12: On rejection of plaint under provisions of Order VII Rule 11 of Civil Procedure, 1908, presenting of a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of ac

Question 13: 'Rule of Heydon's case' is also known as:

Question 14: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to:

Question 15: Who amongst the following cannot be appointed as Advocate General:

Question 16: Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Question 17: For the purpose of Limitation Act, 1963, a suit in the case of pauper, is instituted:

Question 18: Which of the following contracts can be enforced?

Question 19: Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which deals with transfer by unauthorised person who subsequently acquires interest in immovable pro

Question 20: Which provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 bars entertainment of application to review an order made on an application for a review of a decree

Question 21: What is the remedy available to an aggrieved party against a final order passed by the Rent Tribunal constituted under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act

Question 22: 'A' and 'B' contract that 'A' shall build a house for 'B' at a fixed price. The order in which reciprocal promises are to be performed was not fixed.

Question 23: The rule of construction 'Nocsitur a soclis' means:

Question 24: Which of the Act & Regulations cannot be declared unconstitutional by High Courts and Supreme Court?

Question 25: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record were inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

Question 26: A mutual mistake of the parties in an Instrument, which does not express their real intention, can be got rectified by either party to the instrument:

Question 27: Power to amend the issue or frame additional issues prior to passing of a decree vests in a Court by virtue of which provision of the Code of Civil Pr

Question 28: A Judge of High Court may by writing under his hand, resign his office. To whom such resignation should be addressed?

Question 29: In case of repugnancy between the law made by the Parliament and law made by the State Legislature, with respect to any matter enumerated in concurren

Question 30: Which provision of the Constitution of India abolished 'Untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form?

Question 31: Complete the statement-A Court cannot issue commission:

Question 32: Which of the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that the objection regarding territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction has to be rais

Question 33: The words "SOCIALIST SECULAR" were inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution by which constitutional amendment?

Question 34: Which provision of the Constitution confers upon a High Court the power to punish for contempt of itself?

Question 35: Which of the following facts are required to be proved?

Question 36: The period of limitation for filing a suit to set aside transfer of property made by a guardian of a ward, by the ward's legal representative, when th

Question 37: Under which provision of Code of Civil Procedure, restoration or setting aside of orders passed ex parte can be sought regarding an application filed

Question 38: The period of limitation for filing a suit relating to tort against one who, having right to use property for specific purpose, perverts it to other p

Question 39: The principle of 'force majeure' emanates from which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

Question 40: Under which provision, can the Court issue a warrant of arrest against a person released on bail and require him to furnish sufficient sureties?

Question 41: In which of the following, the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that in a case arising from Negotiable Instruments Act, successive sentences may be directed

Question 42: Which provision of Indian Evidence Act stipulates that the fact of a woman being habituated to sexual intercourse will not be relevant on the issue of

Question 43: In reference to the trial of summons cases by a Magistrate, which of the following statements is correct?

Question 44: Ram while going on pilgrimage, entrusted a box containing jewellery to his neighbor Shayam. Shayam dishonestly with the intent to commit mischief, bre

Question 45: In which celebrated judgment, did the Hon'ble Supreme Court classified the witnesses into three categories (i) wholly reliable, (ii) wholly unreliable

Question 46: When a child in conflict with law is in custody while undergoing trial, is declared adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protec

Question 47: Under which provision of law, a body Incorporate is required to appoint an authorized representative for the purpose of inquiry or trial before a crim

Question 48: 'वह आदमी आ रहा है', वाक्य में 'वह' की व्याकरणिक कोटि है;

Question 49: 'नौकर चिट्ठी लाया', वाक्य में क्रिया है;

Question 50: 'कसौटी' शब्द है;