Question 1

If any dispute arises between a Panchayati Raj Institution and other Local Authority, the same shall be referred to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The State Government. Section 100 of the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, states that disputes between a Panchayati Raj Institution and other local authority shall be referred to the State Government.

Question 2

Under the Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009 a person, against whom an order has been passed under Section 117 of the Code of Criminal Procedure in the proceedings instituted under Section 110 of the said Code; and such other has not been subsequently reversed, is disqualified for being chosen as me

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: until expiry of the period for which he is ordered to furnish security. Section 21(1)(d) of the Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009, disqualifies a person against whom an order under CrPC Section 117/110 has been passed, until the expiry of the period for which security is ordered.

Question 3

The Supreme Court has held that right to fly the National Flag with respect and dignity is a fundamental right of every citizen within the meaning of Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India in the case of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Union of India v. Naveen Jindal. In Union of India v. Naveen Jindal, the Supreme Court held that the right to fly the National Flag with respect and dignity is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a).

Question 4

Which of the following is a constitutional right but not a fundamental right?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Right to hold property. The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, and is now a constitutional right under Article 300A.

Question 5

Under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, the functions and powers of Zila Parishad are speficied in:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Second Schedule. The functions and powers of Zila Parishad are specified in the Second Schedule of the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994.

Question 6

As per Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, every offence punishable under the Act is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Compoundable. Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, makes offences under the Act compoundable.

Question 7

Mother has cooked the dinner.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The dinner has been cooked by mother.. The passive voice of 'Mother has cooked the dinner' (Present Perfect Active) is 'The dinner has been cooked by mother' (Present Perfect Passive).

Question 8

This shop sells books.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Books are sold in this shop. The passive voice of 'This shop sells books' (Simple Present Active) is 'Books are sold in this shop' (Simple Present Passive).

Question 9

"Strike while the iron is hot"

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: make the most of present opportunities. 'Strike while the iron is hot' means to take advantage of an opportunity when it arises.

Question 10

"A miss is as good as a mile"

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: failure is failure. 'A miss is as good as a mile' means that even a small failure is still a failure, and there's no credit for nearly succeeding.

Question 11

I am reading a book.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Present Continuous. 'I am reading' uses the 'be' verb + -ing form, which indicates the Present Continuous tense.

Question 12

She has worked out all the sums.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Present Perfect. 'She has worked out' uses 'has' + past participle, which indicates the Present Perfect tense.

Question 13

The Supreme Court of India has laid down the law relating to Alternative Dispute Resolution processes and Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the case of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Afcon Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co.. Afcon Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. is the landmark case for ADR and Section 89 CPC.

Question 14

Under Order XXXII Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a next friend of a minor can be removed:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: for any of the above reasons. Order XXXII Rule 9(1) of CPC lists all these as grounds for removal of a next friend.

Question 15

In the Code of Civil Procedure, an ex parte decree can be set aside:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Under Order IX Rule 13. Order IX Rule 13 of CPC deals with setting aside ex parte decrees.

Question 16

The Communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: as soon as acceptance is made by the acceptor. As per Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor when it is made by the acceptor.

Question 17

An agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person other than a minor is

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: void. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act declares agreements in restraint of marriage (except of a minor) as void.

Question 18

'Bailee' is a person:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: to whom the goods are delivered. As per Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, a 'bailee' is the person to whom goods are delivered.

Question 19

The rule of 'strict liability' propounded in the case of Rylands v. Fletcher is not applicable:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. All listed options (vis major, act of stranger, plaintiff's own fault) are recognized exceptions to the rule of strict liability in Rylands v. Fletcher.

Question 20

The Rule of 'res ipsa loquitur' is related to the tort of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Negligence. 'Res ipsa loquitur' (the thing speaks for itself) is a doctrine primarily applied in cases of negligence.

Question 21

The land, for the beneficial enjoyment of which easement exists, is called:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Dominant heritage. As per Section 4 of the Indian Easements Act, the land for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right exists is called the dominant heritage.

Question 22

Under Section 173 of the Motor Vehicles Act, a person aggrieved by an award of the Tribunal can prefer an appeal to

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The High Court. Under Section 173 of the Motor Vehicles Act, an appeal from an award of the Claims Tribunal lies to the High Court.

Question 23

Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the arbitral proceedings, in respect of a particular dispute commence on the date:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent. As per Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, arbitral proceedings commence on the date on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent.

Question 24

In the arbitral proceedings, where a party fails to appear at an oral hearing or fails to produce documentary evidence:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The Tribunal has power to continue the proceedings and to give its award. As per Section 25 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, if a party fails to appear or produce evidence, the arbitral tribunal may continue the proceedings and make an award.

Question 25

Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, which of the following landlord is entitled to recover Immediate possession of a residential premises;

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Section 18 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, provides for immediate possession for landlords who are retired members of armed forces, central government employees, or state-owned corporation employees.

Question 26

Under which provision of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, any dispute concerning any boundaries can be decided by the Land Records Officer?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 110. Section 110 of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, deals with the decision of boundary disputes by the Land Records Officer.

Question 27

In the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, such provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 which do not apply to the suit or proceedings under that Act are contained in

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Third Schedule. The Third Schedule of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, specifies the provisions of CPC that do not apply to suits or proceedings under the Act.

Question 28

Where the plaintiff, in a suit for specific performance, proves the existence of the agreement and its non-performance by the defendant, the Court:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: is not bound to issue a decree for specific performance, since the relief is discretionary. As per Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act, the relief of specific performance is discretionary, and the court is not bound to grant it merely because it is lawful to do so.

Question 29

If a person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than In due course of law, he may file a suit to recover possession under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act within:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: six months from the date of dispossession. Section 6(2) of the Specific Relief Act states that a suit for possession by a dispossessed person must be filed within six months from the date of dispossession.

Question 30

The principles in the case of Jijabai Vithalrao Gajre v. Pathan Khan (AIR 1971 SC 315) are related with:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Minority and Guardianship. Jijabai Vithalrao Gajre v. Pathan Khan is a significant case related to the principles of minority and guardianship under personal laws.

Question 31

The prescribed period of limitation for preferring an appeal under Section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: ninety days. Section 28(4) of the Hindu Marriage Act, as amended, prescribes a limitation period of ninety days for preferring an appeal.

Question 32

Under the Muslim Law, 'Khula' and 'Mubara'at' are:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: the forms of dissolution of marriage by agreement. Under Muslim Law, Khula and Mubara'at are forms of divorce by mutual agreement.

Question 33

If the donee dies before acceptance of gift, then:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: the gift is void. As per Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, a gift is void if the donee dies before acceptance.

Question 34

A lessee accepts from the lessor a new lease of the property leased, to take effect during the continuance of the existing lease. This:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: is an implied surrender of the former lease. As per Section 111(f) of the Transfer of Property Act, acceptance of a new lease during the continuance of an existing lease implies a surrender of the former lease.

Question 35

Where the prescribed period of limitation for any application is expiring on a holiday, the application:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: may be made on the day when the Court re-opens. Section 4 of the Limitation Act provides that if the prescribed period expires on a holiday, the application may be made on the day the court re-opens.

Question 36

Under the Limitation Act, the period of limitation for filing a suit for compensation for false imprisonment begins to run from the time:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: when imprisonment ends. As per Article 74 of the Limitation Act, the period of limitation for false imprisonment begins when the imprisonment ends.

Question 37

Under the Limitation Act, the period of limitation for filing an application for an order to set aside an abatement is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: 60 days. As per Article 120 of the Limitation Act, the period of limitation for an application to set aside an abatement is 60 days.

Question 38

Where in a case referred under Section 20(1) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, no award could be made by the Lok Adalat on the ground that no compromise could be arrived at between the parties, the Lok Adalat shall:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: return the record of the case to the Court which made the reference. Section 20(5) of the Legal Services Authorities Act states that if no compromise is reached in a Lok Adalat, the case record is returned to the court that made the reference.

Question 39

Under the protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, besides passing orders for protection and residence, a Magistrate can pass:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, a Magistrate can pass various orders including protection, residence, custody, and compensation orders.

Question 40

Under the Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011, the Sate Government may notify the service provided by:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All the above. Section 2(g) of the Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011, defines 'service' to include those provided by the State Government, institutions established by law, and departments of the State Government.

Question 41

Under the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, the power to make rules to carry out the purposes of the enactment has been conferred on:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The State Government. Section 15 of the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, confers the power to make rules on the State Government.

Question 42

Statement No. 1: Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any Court. Statement No. 2: Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Both the statements are true. Both statements are true. Article 37 of the Constitution states that DPSPs are not enforceable by any court but are fundamental in the governance of the country.

Question 43

The term 'unlawful assembly' means:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: An assembly of five or more persons with a common object of doing a crime. Section 141 of the Indian Penal Code defines an 'unlawful assembly' as an assembly of five or more persons with a common object to commit an offence.

Question 44

A police officer has received a sum of Rs. 5000/-against fine from the persons violating traffic rules. Instead of depositing the fine money with State Treasury, he utilized the same for his personal use. What offence under Indian Penal Code, the police officer has committed?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Criminal breach of trust. A police officer misusing public funds entrusted to him commits criminal breach of trust, specifically under Section 409 IPC (criminal breach of trust by public servant).

Question 45

If a person, with a knowledge that the feelings of group of people is likely to be wounded, trespasses a place set apart for the performance of funeral rights, he commits a crime described under Section:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 296 Indian Penal Code. Section 296 of the Indian Penal Code deals with disturbing religious assembly or funeral ceremonies.

Question 46

A person held guilty for commission of an offence described under Section 326A of the Indian Penal Code, is liable to be punished with imprisonment which shall not be less than ten years, but which may extend to Imprisonment for life with fine, required to be paid to the victim. Such fine shall be:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses of the treatment of victim. Section 326A of the Indian Penal Code states that the fine imposed shall be just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses of the treatment of the victim.

Question 47

A police officer detaines a person in the lock-up production of a bail order from the Court. The police officer is guilty of

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Wrongful confinement. Detaining a person against their will, even with a bail order, constitutes wrongful confinement under Section 340 IPC.

Question 48

A hotel situated at the bank of a water reservoir, despite objection, discharges its polluted water in the reservoir, causing fouls to reservoir water. For which offence under Indian Penal Code the Manager of the Hotel can be charged?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 277. Section 277 of the Indian Penal Code deals with fouling water of a public spring or reservoir.

Question 49

In Indian Penal Code the pronoun 'he' and its derivatives are used for

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Any person whether male or female. Section 8 of the Indian Penal Code clarifies that the pronoun 'he' and its derivatives are used for any person, whether male or female.

Question 50

In which of the following leading cases, Hon'ble the Supreme Court held that benefit of Section 3 or Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is subject to the limitations laid down in these provisions and the words 'may direct' in Section 4 does not mean 'must direct'.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Ram Prakash v. State of Himachal Pradesh (AIR 1973 SC 780). In Ram Prakash v. State of Himachal Pradesh (AIR 1973 SC 780), the Supreme Court clarified the discretionary nature of Sections 3 and 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act.

Question 51

Who is entitled for immunity from prosecution under Section 64A of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Both (1) and (2) above. Section 64A of the NDPS Act grants immunity from prosecution to addicts charged under Section 27 for small quantities, if they volunteer for de-addiction treatment.

Question 52

An officer of the Company shall not be liable to punishment, for contravention of any of the provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000, if he proves that:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The contravention too place without his knowledge or he exercised all due diligence to prevent such contravention. Section 85 of the Information Technology Act provides that an officer is not liable if they prove that the contravention occurred without their knowledge or despite due diligence to prevent it.

Question 53

Mrs. 'R' lodges a first information report at Police Station with assertion that Mr. 'X' by sending her vulgar message either by forwarding e-mails or through Short Messaging Service (SMS) intrudes upon her privacy. For what offence, the case may be registered against Mr. 'X'?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 509 of Indian Penal Code and 66E of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Section 509 IPC deals with insulting the modesty of a woman, and Section 66E of the IT Act deals with violation of privacy by transmitting images of private areas. Section 66A was struck down.

Question 54

'Mens rea has no place while determining penal liability under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881'. This statement is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Correct. Offences under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act are considered strict liability offences, meaning mens rea (guilty mind) is not a necessary element to prove the offence.

Question 55

Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the Court under Section 85A of the Indian Evidence Act?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Electronic Agreement. Section 85A of the Indian Evidence Act allows the court to presume that an electronic record purporting to be an electronic agreement is valid.

Question 56

Which one document from the following is not a "Public Document"?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Will. Section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act defines public documents. A will is generally a private document, unlike judgments, charge sheets, or post-mortem reports which are public records.

Question 57

A witness unable to speak, if gives his statement in writing before the Court, then such evidence shall be deemed to be:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Oral evidence. Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act states that a witness unable to speak, if giving evidence in writing or by signs, such evidence shall be deemed to be oral evidence.

Question 58

In a criminal case, the primary burden to prove a fact is upon:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Prosecution. In criminal cases, the burden of proving the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt lies primarily on the prosecution.

Question 59

A sues B for negligence in providing him with a carriage for hire not reasonably fit for use. Whereby A was injured. The fact that B was habitually negligent about the carriages which he let to hire is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: irrelevant. As per Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, a person's general character or habit of negligence is usually irrelevant to prove a specific act of negligence on a particular occasion.

Question 60

Under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, an accused may plead alibi?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 11. The plea of alibi (being elsewhere at the time of the crime) is covered under Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, as it makes the existence of the fact in issue (presence at the crime scene) highly improbable.

Question 61

The doctrine of estoppel means:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Restriction to make statement contrary to the earlier statement/admission. The doctrine of estoppel, as codified in Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, prevents a person from denying a statement or fact which he has previously affirmed or caused another to believe.

Question 62

An accused in police custody, informs to the State House Officer that the key by which he opened the safe and committed theft is kept by him in the patio of his house. To what extent this information can be proved?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: For keeping the key in patio of house. As per Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, only so much of the information received from a person in custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered can be proved. In this case, the discovery is the key and its location, not the act of theft itself.

Question 63

In a trial, while explaining any circumstances appearing in evidence against him, an accused of committing murder states that due to grave and sudden provocation he was deprived of the power of self-control and thus, gave a single lathi blow to A, causing his death. The burden to prove grave and sud

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The Accused. Section 105 of the Indian Evidence Act places the burden of proving that a case falls within an exception to a penal law upon the accused.

Question 64

In the Indian Evidence Act, the expression "Court" means:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: All persons except Arbitrators, legally authorised to take evidence. Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act defines 'Court' to include all Judges and Magistrates, and all persons, except arbitrators, legally authorized to take evidence.

Rajasthan Judiciary Pre 2014

100 Questions Available

Rajasthan Judiciary Pre 2014

100 Questions Available

Question 1: If any dispute arises between a Panchayati Raj Institution and other Local Authority, the same shall be referred to:

Question 2: Under the Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009 a person, against whom an order has been passed under Section 117 of the Code of Criminal Procedure in th

Question 3: The Supreme Court has held that right to fly the National Flag with respect and dignity is a fundamental right of every citizen within the meaning of

Question 4: Which of the following is a constitutional right but not a fundamental right?

Question 5: Under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, the functions and powers of Zila Parishad are speficied in:

Question 6: As per Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, every offence punishable under the Act is

Question 7: Mother has cooked the dinner.

Question 8: This shop sells books.

Question 9: "Strike while the iron is hot"

Question 10: "A miss is as good as a mile"

Question 11: I am reading a book.

Question 12: She has worked out all the sums.

Question 13: The Supreme Court of India has laid down the law relating to Alternative Dispute Resolution processes and Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure in

Question 14: Under Order XXXII Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a next friend of a minor can be removed:

Question 15: In the Code of Civil Procedure, an ex parte decree can be set aside:

Question 16: The Communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor:

Question 17: An agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person other than a minor is

Question 18: 'Bailee' is a person:

Question 19: The rule of 'strict liability' propounded in the case of Rylands v. Fletcher is not applicable:

Question 20: The Rule of 'res ipsa loquitur' is related to the tort of:

Question 21: The land, for the beneficial enjoyment of which easement exists, is called:

Question 22: Under Section 173 of the Motor Vehicles Act, a person aggrieved by an award of the Tribunal can prefer an appeal to

Question 23: Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the arbitral proceedings, in respect of a particular dispute commence on the date:

Question 24: In the arbitral proceedings, where a party fails to appear at an oral hearing or fails to produce documentary evidence:

Question 25: Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, which of the following landlord is entitled to recover Immediate possession of a residential premises;

Question 26: Under which provision of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, any dispute concerning any boundaries can be decided by the Land Records Officer?

Question 27: In the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, such provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 which do not apply to the suit or proceedings under that Act

Question 28: Where the plaintiff, in a suit for specific performance, proves the existence of the agreement and its non-performance by the defendant, the Court:

Question 29: If a person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than In due course of law, he may file a suit to recover possession un

Question 30: The principles in the case of Jijabai Vithalrao Gajre v. Pathan Khan (AIR 1971 SC 315) are related with:

Question 31: The prescribed period of limitation for preferring an appeal under Section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act is:

Question 32: Under the Muslim Law, 'Khula' and 'Mubara'at' are:

Question 33: If the donee dies before acceptance of gift, then:

Question 34: A lessee accepts from the lessor a new lease of the property leased, to take effect during the continuance of the existing lease. This:

Question 35: Where the prescribed period of limitation for any application is expiring on a holiday, the application:

Question 36: Under the Limitation Act, the period of limitation for filing a suit for compensation for false imprisonment begins to run from the time:

Question 37: Under the Limitation Act, the period of limitation for filing an application for an order to set aside an abatement is:

Question 38: Where in a case referred under Section 20(1) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, no award could be made by the Lok Adalat on the ground that

Question 39: Under the protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, besides passing orders for protection and residence, a Magistrate can pass:

Question 40: Under the Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011, the Sate Government may notify the service provided by:

Question 41: Under the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, the power to make rules to carry out the purposes of the enactment has been conferred on:

Question 42: Statement No. 1: Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any Court. Statement No. 2: Directive Principles of State Policy are fund

Question 43: The term 'unlawful assembly' means:

Question 44: A police officer has received a sum of Rs. 5000/-against fine from the persons violating traffic rules. Instead of depositing the fine money with Stat

Question 45: If a person, with a knowledge that the feelings of group of people is likely to be wounded, trespasses a place set apart for the performance of funera

Question 46: A person held guilty for commission of an offence described under Section 326A of the Indian Penal Code, is liable to be punished with imprisonment wh

Question 47: A police officer detaines a person in the lock-up production of a bail order from the Court. The police officer is guilty of

Question 48: A hotel situated at the bank of a water reservoir, despite objection, discharges its polluted water in the reservoir, causing fouls to reservoir water

Question 49: In Indian Penal Code the pronoun 'he' and its derivatives are used for

Question 50: In which of the following leading cases, Hon'ble the Supreme Court held that benefit of Section 3 or Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958