Rajasthan Judiciary Pre 2015

Full paper with verified answers

100 Questions Available

MCQ
1

Question 1: Which of the following is correct statement in so far as section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, is concerned?

Which of the following is correct statement in so far as section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, is concerned?

A.The suit has to be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it
B.The suit has to be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the defendant actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain
C.The suit has to be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction, the cause of action wholly or in part arises
D.All the above are correct
MCQ
2

Question 2: In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court uphold the validity of the Code of Civil Procedure Amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002?

In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court uphold the validity of the Code of Civil Procedure Amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002?

A.Delhi High Court Bar Association v. UOI
B.Allahabad High Court Bar Association v. UOI
C.Salem Advocate Bar Association v. UOI
D.P&H High Court Bar Association v. UOI
MCQ
3

Question 3: An Appeal under Order XLIII of Code of Civil Procedure shall lie from which of the following orders:

An Appeal under Order XLIII of Code of Civil Procedure shall lie from which of the following orders:

A.Rule 11 of Order VII, rejecting the plaint
B.Rule 9 of Order XXII, refusing to set aside the abatement or dismissal of suit
C.Rule 1 of Order VIII, not permitting the defendant to present the written statement
D.Rule 5 of Order XIV, refusing to strike out the issue at the instance of either of the parties
MCQ
4

Question 4: Statement A: Where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith, as an easement, without interrupt

Statement A: Where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith, as an easement, without interruption, and for twenty years, the right to such access and use of light or air shall be absolute. Statement B: A right to the free passage of light or air to an open space of ground, cannot be acquired by prescription.

A.Statement A is correct
B.Statement B is correct
C.Both statements are correct
D.Both statements are incorrect
MCQ
5

Question 5: Which of the following statements is correct?

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.In a suit for specific performance of a contract for transfer of immovable property, the court cannot grant partition and separate possession of the property
B.In a suit for specific performance of a contract for transfer of immovable property, the plaintiff cannot alternatively ask for the refund of earnest money or deposit made by him
C.The court while refusing to grant specific performance of the contract, cannot grant refund of earnest money paid by the plaintiff, unless it has been specifically claimed
D.All the above are correct
MCQ
6

Question 6: Which of the following documents is not required to be compulsorily registered?

Which of the following documents is not required to be compulsorily registered?

A.Instruments creating or declaring right, title or interest to or in immovable property of rupees one hundred and upwards
B.Wills in respect of immovable property
C.Leases of immovable property for a term exceeding one year
D.Instruments transferring any decree of a court when such decree purports to create right in immovable property of rupees one hundred and upwards
MCQ
7

Question 7: In which of the following mortgages, the mortgagor is required to deliver possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee?

In which of the following mortgages, the mortgagor is required to deliver possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee?

A.English mortgage
B.Mortgage by conditional sale
C.Usufructuary mortgage
D.Anomalous mortgage
MCQ
8

Question 8: Statement A: Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor is void. Statement B: Every tran

Statement A: Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor is void. Statement B: Every transfer of immovable property made without consideration with intent to defraud a subsequent transferee is void.

A.Statement A is correct
B.Statement B is correct
C.Both statements are correct
D.Both statements are incorrect
MCQ
9

Question 9: Which of the following statements is correct, so far as Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is concerned?

Which of the following statements is correct, so far as Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is concerned?

A.A party may apply to the court for interim measures during the pendency of the arbitration proceedings only
B.A party may apply to the court seeking appointment of receiver by way of interim measures even after the making of the arbitral award by the Arbitral Tribunal
C.A party cannot apply for interim measures before the commencement of arbitral proceedings
D.All the above are correct
MCQ
10

Question 10: The period of three years is prescribed under Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in case where no other period of Limitation is provided for fil

The period of three years is prescribed under Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in case where no other period of Limitation is provided for filing any:

A.Suit
B.Appeal
C.Application
D.Proceeding
MCQ
11

Question 11: Statement A: In computing period of limitation for any appeal, the day from which such period is to be reckoned, shall be included. Statement B: In co

Statement A: In computing period of limitation for any appeal, the day from which such period is to be reckoned, shall be included. Statement B: In computing period of Limitation for any appeal, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining the copy of the decree shall be excluded.

A.Statement A is corrected
B.Statement B is correct
C.Both are correct
D.Both are incorrect
MCQ
12

Question 12: Which of the following is correct as per Section 22C of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987?

Which of the following is correct as per Section 22C of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987?

A.Any party to a dispute may, after the dispute is brought before any court, make an application to the permanent Lok Adalat for the settlement of dispute
B.The permanent Lok Adalat shall not have the jurisdiction in respect of any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law
C.The permanent Lok Adalat shall have the jurisdiction only in such matter where the value of the property in dispute is more than ten lakh rupees
D.All the above are correct
MCQ
13

Question 13: Under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the marriage may be declared null and void if:

Under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the marriage may be declared null and void if:

A.the parties are within the degrees of prohibited relationship
B.at the time of the marriage, one of the parties was incapable of giving a valid consent to it in consequence of unsoundness of mind
C.at the time of the marriage, one of the parties was subject to recurrent attacks of insanity
D.In all the above circumstances
MCQ
14

Question 14: After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, the daughter of a coparcener in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law:

After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, the daughter of a coparcener in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law:

A.shall have no right in the coparcenery property
B.cannot become a coparcener by birth
C.shall become a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as the son
D.shall be entitled to dispose of the entire coparcenery property
MCQ
15

Question 15: Which of the following is incorrect?

Which of the following is incorrect?

A.The husband is the natural guardian of a Hindu married girl
B.After the adoption of Hindu minor son, his father continues to remain his natural guardian till he attains majority
C.The natural guardian of a Hindu minor child is the father, and after him the mother, but custody of minor upto the age of five years shall ordinarily be with the mother
D.The natural guardian of an illegitimate Hindu minor boy is the mother, and after her, the father
MCQ
16

Question 16: A Hindu wife is entitled to claim maintenance after the death of her husband from her father-in-law under:

A Hindu wife is entitled to claim maintenance after the death of her husband from her father-in-law under:

A.Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B.Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C.Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
D.Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
MCQ
17

Question 17: As per Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, "respondent" means and includes:

As per Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, "respondent" means and includes:

A.any person, who is in a domestic relationship with the aggrieved person and against whom the aggrieved person has sought relief under the Act
B.male partner when aggrieved female is living in a relationship with him in the nature of a marriage
C.the female relatives of the husband of the aggrieved wife, seeking their removal from the shared household
D.none of the above
MCQ
18

Question 18: As per Section 3 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, the Chapter II and III thereof do not apply to:

As per Section 3 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, the Chapter II and III thereof do not apply to:

A.the premises, let out after the commencement of the Act for a period of two years through a registered deed
B.the premises, let out to the multinational company having paid up share capital of less than rupees one crore
C.the premises, let out for residential purposes, the monthly rent whereof is rupees four thousand in case of the premises situated in the Municipal area of Jaipur city
D.the premises belonging to the Government company as defined under the Companies Act, 1956
MCQ
19

Question 19: Which of the following statements is not correct, so far as Section 242 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 is concerned?

Which of the following statements is not correct, so far as Section 242 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 is concerned?

A.Civil Court can frame the issue with regard to the tenancy rights in agricultural land and submit the record to the appropriate revenue court for the decision on that issue only
B.Civil court may or may not accept the finding of revenue court on the issue referred to it
C.the finding of the revenue court on the issue referred to it, shall be deemed to be part of the finding of civil court for the purposes of Appeal
D.Civil court cannot decide the issue which was referred to the revenue court
MCQ
20

Question 20: Which of the following is not the judicial matter under Section 23 read with the First Schedule to the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956?

Which of the following is not the judicial matter under Section 23 read with the First Schedule to the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956?

A.Regularisation of unauthorised occupation
B.A dispute with respect to the right of grazing cattle on pasturage land
C.Settlement of boundary disputes
D.Mutation upon succession
MCQ
21

Question 21: The General Rules (Civil), 1986 have been framed:

The General Rules (Civil), 1986 have been framed:

A.by the Rajasthan High Court under Article 227 of the Constitution of India
B.by the Governor under Article 166 of the Constitution of India.
C.by the Chief Justice under Article 229 of the Constitution of India.
D.by the State Government under Article 309 of the Constitution of India.
MCQ
22

Question 22: Which of the following is not an essential Ingredient of gift under the Mohammedan law:

Which of the following is not an essential Ingredient of gift under the Mohammedan law:

A.a declaration of gift by the donor
B.acceptance of gift, expressed or implied, by or on behalf of donee
C.delivery of possession of the subject gift by the donor to the donee
D.A written deed of gift
MCQ
23

Question 23: Under the provisions of the Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, a Bank can recover its dues from any agricul

Under the provisions of the Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, a Bank can recover its dues from any agriculturist or his heir or legal representative or his guarantor on account of financial assistance availed of by the agriculturist by making an application to:

A.District Judge
B.High Court
C.Prescribed Authority
D.None of the above
MCQ
24

Question 24: Under Section 35 of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, in a suit for partition and separate possession of a share in joint family

Under Section 35 of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, in a suit for partition and separate possession of a share in joint family property by a plaintiff, who has been excluded from possession of such property, court fee shall be:

A.paid at fixed rate
B.computed on the market value of the plaintiff's share of the property
C.at the discretion of the plaintiff
D.based on written statement of the defendant
MCQ
25

Question 25: Under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, In case of a release-deed, in the absence of an agreement to the contrary, the expense of providing the proper st

Under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, In case of a release-deed, in the absence of an agreement to the contrary, the expense of providing the proper stamp shall be borne by:

A.the beneficiary
B.the person drawing, making or executing the release-deed
C.by both the parties in equal shares
D.none of the above
MCQ
26

Question 26: If an instrument has not been duly stamped and where such an instrument has been admitted in evidence, such admission:

If an instrument has not been duly stamped and where such an instrument has been admitted in evidence, such admission:

A.can be called in question at any stage of the same suit or proceeding
B.shall not be called in question at any stage of the same suit or proceeding except as provided for by Section 71 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998
C.at the discretion of the opposite party can be called in question
D.none of the above
MCQ
27

Question 27: Under the Registration Act, 1908 a Will can be presented for registration before the Registrar or Sub Registrar by

Under the Registration Act, 1908 a Will can be presented for registration before the Registrar or Sub Registrar by

A.the testator
B.after death of testator, any person claiming as executor or otherwise under a Will
C.both (1) and (2)
D.none of the above
MCQ
28

Question 28: Two parties entered into a contract. They later realised that the law as they understood as applicable was not in force in India. This makes their con

Two parties entered into a contract. They later realised that the law as they understood as applicable was not in force in India. This makes their contract:

A.illegal
B.void
C.voidable
D.none of the above
MCQ
29

Question 29: Acknowledgement after the expiration of the period prescribed under the Indian Limitation Act, 1963, for a suit or application:

Acknowledgement after the expiration of the period prescribed under the Indian Limitation Act, 1963, for a suit or application:

A.is of no effect
B.gives rise to an independent & enforceable contract.
C.is of great value
D.none of the above
MCQ
30

Question 30: Time limit for disposal of petition filed under Section 9 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 is:

Time limit for disposal of petition filed under Section 9 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 is:

A.within the period of two hundred and forty days from the date of service of notice on the tenant
B.within the period of twelve months from the date of service of notice on the tenant
C.within the period of six months from the date of service of notice on the tenant
D.no limitation
MCQ
31

Question 31: Subject to contract between the partners, a firm is dissolved:

Subject to contract between the partners, a firm is dissolved:

A.if constituted for a fixed term, by the expiry of that term
B.if constituted to carry out one or more adventures or undertakings, by the completion thereof
C.by the death of a partner
D.all the above
MCQ
32

Question 32: Finder of lost goods under Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a

Finder of lost goods under Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a

A.bailor
B.surety
C.bailee
D.none of the above
MCQ
33

Question 33: Under Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, a complaint can be filed regarding grievance relating to:

Under Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, a complaint can be filed regarding grievance relating to:

A.the service matters of a public servant
B.any matter in which any court or Tribunal has jurisdiction
C.any matter under Right to Information Act, 2005
D.none of the above
MCQ
34

Question 34: In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that the members of the Transgender Community who are neither male nor female, at the time

In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that the members of the Transgender Community who are neither male nor female, at the time of birth, are recognized as 'Third Gender' for the purpose of safeguarding and enforcing appropriately their fundamental and other legal, social and economic rights guaranteed under the Constitution?

A.Rambilas Singh v. State of Bihar, AIR 1989 SC 1593
B.Lily Thomas v. State of Bihar (2013) 7 SCC 653
C.National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) 5 SCC 438
D.None of the above
MCQ
35

Question 35: Article 21A providing for Right to Education was inserted in the Constitution by:

Article 21A providing for Right to Education was inserted in the Constitution by:

A.the Constitution (Eighty Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
B.the Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003
C.the Constitution (Ninety Second Amendment) Act, 2003
D.the Constitution (Eighty Fourth Amendment) Act, 2001
MCQ
36

Question 36: Which of the following is a correct statement of law as per Sections 138 and 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

Which of the following is a correct statement of law as per Sections 138 and 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

A.A cheque is to be presented to the bank within a period of six months from the date it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier
B.Notice within thirty days of receipt of information from the bank regarding return of cheque as unpaid, has to be served upon drawer, demanding payment of amount of money
C.on failure of drawer of such cheque to make payment within fifteen days of receipt of such notice, the payee or holder of cheque has to file complaint within one month thereof
D.All the above
MCQ
37

Question 37: The delay in filing a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, can be condoned:

The delay in filing a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, can be condoned:

A.under Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963
B.under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
C.under Section 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
D.under Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
MCQ
38

Question 38: In which of the following judgments has the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

In which of the following judgments has the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

A.Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, AIR 2015 SC 1523
B.Selvi and Others v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263
C.PUCL v. Union of India (1997) 1 SCC 301
D.Amar Singh v. Union of India (2011)7 SCC 67
MCQ
39

Question 39: According to Section 25 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, statement of a child under Section 164 of the Code of Criminal P

According to Section 25 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, statement of a child under Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to be recorded by the Magistrate:

A.shall be recorded in presence of the advocate of the accused
B.shall not be recorded in presence of the advocate of the accused
C.shall be recorded in presence of the Investigating Officer
D.shall be recorded in presence of woman Police Officer
MCQ
40

Question 40: Which of the following is not the duty of Probation Officer?

Which of the following is not the duty of Probation Officer?

A.To supervise probationers placed under his supervision and where necessary, endeavour to find them suitable employment
B.To advise and assist offenders in payment of compensation or costs ordered by the court
C.To inquire into the circumstances or home surroundings of any person accused of an offence
D.To arrange for lodging and boarding of the probationers
MCQ
41

Question 41: Which of following conditions, as per the provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, has to be adhered to while examinin

Which of following conditions, as per the provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, has to be adhered to while examining or recording statement of the child

A.the statement of child shall be recorded at the residence of child or the place where he usually resides or the place of his choice
B.as far as practicable the statement should be recorded by woman police officer not below the rank of Sub Inspector, who shall not be in uniform
C.the Investigating Officer shall ensure that at no point of time the child comes in contact in any way with the accused
D.all the above
MCQ
42

Question 42: A private key and Its mathematically related public key, which are so related that the public key, can verify a digital signature created by the priva

A private key and Its mathematically related public key, which are so related that the public key, can verify a digital signature created by the private key, in an Asymmetric Crypto system means:

A.Key pair
B.Both keys
C.Soft keys
D.Soft pair
MCQ
43

Question 43: A person, who sends, generates, stores or transmits any electronic message; or causes any electronic message to be sent, generated, stored or transmit

A person, who sends, generates, stores or transmits any electronic message; or causes any electronic message to be sent, generated, stored or transmitted to any other person, is called:

A.Sender
B.Originator
C.Generator
D.Intermediary
MCQ
44

Question 44: What is the minimum and maximum sentence that can be awarded to an accused guilty of second or subsequent offence of theft of electric lines and mater

What is the minimum and maximum sentence that can be awarded to an accused guilty of second or subsequent offence of theft of electric lines and materials under Section 136 of the Electricity Act, 2003:

A.not less than 1 year but which may extend to 10 years and also fine which shall not be less than one lac rupees.
B.not less than 6 months but which may extend to 5 years and also fine which shall not be less than ten thousand rupees
C.not less than 3 months but which may extend to 3 years and also fine which shall not be less than fifty thousand rupees
D.not less than 9 months but which may extend to 3 years and also fine which shall not be less than one lac rupees
MCQ
45

Question 45: A police officer empowered to investigate cyber crime as per Section 78 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, must not be below the rank of:

A police officer empowered to investigate cyber crime as per Section 78 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, must not be below the rank of:

A.Sub Inspector
B.Inspector
C.Deputy Superintendent of Police
D.Superintendent of Police
MCQ
46

Question 46: In which of the following judgments did the Supreme Court set aside the judgment of the High Court of Delhi which decriminalized Section 377 of the In

In which of the following judgments did the Supreme Court set aside the judgment of the High Court of Delhi which decriminalized Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860:

A.Sakshi v. Union of India, AIR 2004 SC 3566
B.Naz Foundation (India) Trust v. Suresh Kumar Koushal (2014) 3 SCC 220
C.PUCL v. Union of India (2010) 14 SCC 245
D.Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz Foundation (India) Trust (2014) 1 SCC1
MCQ
47

Question 47: Which of the following acts constitute 'Atrocity' as defined in Section 3(1) of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) A

Which of the following acts constitute 'Atrocity' as defined in Section 3(1) of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?

A.Forcing to drink or eat any inedible or obnoxious substances
B.Intentionally insulting or intimidating with intent to humiliate in any place within public view
C.Forcing or intimidating not to vote or to vote for a particular candidate or vote in a manner other than provided by law
D.All the above
MCQ
48

Question 48: Benefit of probation to a convict of offence under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 can be provided only if:

Benefit of probation to a convict of offence under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 can be provided only if:

A.he is under 21 years of age and is convicted for offence punishable under Section 26 or 27 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
B.he is under 18 years of age or is convicted for offence punishable under Section 26 or 27 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
C.to any accused, regardless of his age, sentenced to rigorous imprisonment upto 10 years
D.none of the above
MCQ
49

Question 49: Who, as per Section 2(1) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000, is a 'Juvenile in conflict with law'?

Who, as per Section 2(1) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000, is a 'Juvenile in conflict with law'?

A.A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not completed eighteen years of age as on the date of commission of such offence
B.A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not completed twelve years of age on the date of commission of such offence
C.A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not completed sixteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
D.A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not completed fourteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
MCQ
50

Question 50: Which of the following statements is not correct:

Which of the following statements is not correct:

A.one or more Juvenile Justice Boards shall be constituted by the State Government for every district
B.each Juvenile Justice Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate and two social workers, of whom at-least one shall be a woman
C.the order passed by the Juvenile Justice Board in absence of any Member at any stage of proceedings shall be invalid
D.power of the Juvenile Justice Board may also be exercised by the High Court and the Court of Sessions, when the proceedings come before them in appeal, revision or otherwise
Page 1 of 2