Question 1

In the event of death of the person referred to in sub-clause (i) of Section 2(1) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, in case of premises let out for residential purposes, who of the following ordinarily residing with the tenant as member of his family upto his death, shall be included within t

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: surviving spouse, son, daughter, mother and father. As per Section 2(l)(i) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, in the event of the death of a tenant of residential premises, the definition of 'tenant' includes the surviving spouse, son, daughter, mother, and father who were ordinarily residing with the deceased tenant as members of his family up to the date of his death. Option (3) accurately reflects this core group.

Question 2

The authority competent under Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 to decide a dispute about ownership of a tree and a right to remove it is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Tehsildar. Under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, disputes concerning the ownership of trees and the right to remove them, particularly in relation to agricultural land, fall under the jurisdiction of revenue courts. The Tehsildar is the competent authority at the tehsil level to adjudicate such disputes.

Question 3

An arbitration agreement providing for arbitration by four arbitrators is, under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, to be construed as an agreement for arbitration by:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Three arbitrators. Section 10(1) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, mandates that the number of arbitrators shall not be an even number. If an arbitration agreement provides for an even number of arbitrators (e.g., four), it is generally construed to mean that the arbitral tribunal shall consist of three arbitrators to ensure an odd number for decision-making, typically with each party appointing one and the two appointed arbitrators appointing a third presiding arbitrator.

Question 4

Specific performance of any contract may be ordered where:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: There exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage by non performance of the act to be done.. As per Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, specific performance of a contract may be ordered when there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-performance of the act. This is a key circumstance where monetary compensation is deemed inadequate, thus warranting specific performance. Options (2), (3), and (4) generally represent situations where specific performance would not be granted.

Question 5

A partnership firm is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: None of the above. Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a partnership firm is not considered a distinct legal entity separate from its partners, nor is it an independent juristic person. It is merely a collective name for the individuals who have entered into a partnership. While partners are agents of the firm and of each other, the firm itself is not an agent of its partners. Therefore, none of the given options accurately describe a partnership firm in its legal sense.

Question 6

In view of Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a lease of immovable property is a transfer of:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A right to enjoy such property in consideration of a price paid or promised or of money, a share of crops, service or any other thing of value.. Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines a lease of immovable property as a transfer of a right to enjoy such property. This transfer is made for a specified period or in perpetuity, in consideration of a premium (price paid or promised), or rent (money, share of crops, service, or any other thing of value, to be rendered periodically). Option (1) accurately captures this definition.

Question 7

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court of India shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Article 141. Article 141 of the Constitution of India enshrines the principle of 'stare decisis' by declaring that the law laid down by the Supreme Court is binding on all other courts within the territory of India. This ensures uniformity and certainty in the interpretation and application of law.

Question 8

A lease of immovable property for any term exceeding one year can be made:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Only by a registered instrument. According to Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a lease of immovable property for any term exceeding one year, or from year to year, or reserving a yearly rent, can only be made by a registered instrument. Oral agreements or oral agreements with delivery of possession are not sufficient for such leases.

Question 9

Provision of Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 for extension of prescribed period are applicable to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: None of the above. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, allows for the extension of the prescribed period for filing appeals and applications (except applications under Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure, which relate to execution of decrees) if the applicant can show sufficient cause for the delay. It explicitly does not apply to suits. Therefore, it applies neither to suits nor to applications for execution of decrees.

Question 10

A suit may be defeated due to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Non-joinder of a necessary party. Under Order I Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit cannot be defeated merely due to misjoinder or non-joinder of parties. However, the proviso to this rule clarifies that this principle does not apply to the non-joinder of a 'necessary party'. If a necessary party (without whom no effective decree can be passed) is not joined, the suit may be dismissed or defeated.

Question 11

Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: When it is put in the course of transmission to the proposer so as to be out of power of the acceptor.. As per Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put into a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor. This is known as the 'postal rule' or 'mailbox rule' in contract law.

Question 12

The Commissioner appointed under the provisions of Order XVIII of the Code of Civil Procedure for the purpose of recording of evidence cannot:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Both (1) & (2). A Commissioner appointed under the Code of Civil Procedure (specifically Order XXVI, not Order XVIII, which deals with examination of witnesses in court) for recording evidence has limited powers. The Commissioner's role is primarily to record the evidence. They do not have the judicial authority to decide on objections raised during the recording of evidence; such objections are noted and decided by the court. Similarly, a Commissioner cannot re-examine a witness on their own initiative; re-examination is conducted by the party who called the witness. Therefore, a Commissioner cannot do both (1) and (2).

Question 13

'Premises' under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 does not include:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Accommodation in a hostel. Section 2(j) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, defines 'premises' but also specifies certain exclusions. Among these exclusions is 'an accommodation in a hostel.' An outhouse appurtenant to a building, if it constitutes a building or part of a building, would generally fall within the definition of premises, unless it's merely open land or a garage not considered a building.

Question 14

'Dominant heritages' under the Easements Act, 1882 means:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The Land for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right exists. As per Section 4 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882, 'dominant heritage' refers to the land for the beneficial enjoyment of which an easementary right exists. The land upon which the burden or liability of the easement is imposed is known as the 'servient heritage'.

Question 15

'Lok Adalats' are organised under which legislation?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Lok Adalats (People's Courts) are an alternative dispute resolution mechanism established and organized under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. This Act provides for the constitution of Legal Services Authorities to provide free and competent legal services and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.

Question 16

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: all judicial proceedings in or before any Court. Section 1 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, clearly specifies that the Act applies to all judicial proceedings in or before any Court. However, it explicitly excludes affidavits presented to any Court or Officer, and proceedings before an arbitrator, from its applicability.

Question 17

The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is not applicable to:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: the members of any Scheduled Tribe. Section 2(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, explicitly states that the Act does not apply to members of any Scheduled Tribe, unless the Central Government directs otherwise by notification. The Act generally applies to Hindus, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists, and followers of Brahmo, Prarthana, or Arya Samaj.

Question 18

The special provisions as to payment of compensation on structured formula basis under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 are contained in:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 163-A. Section 163-A of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, introduces a special provision for payment of compensation on a structured formula basis. This section allows for compensation to be claimed on the basis of a fixed formula, without the need to prove fault or negligence on the part of the driver or owner of the vehicle, thereby simplifying and expediting the compensation process.

Question 19

Any court may take cognizance of an offence after expiry of the period of limitation, if it is satisfied on the facts and circumstances of the case that:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: In 1 and 2 both the conditions. Section 473 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, allows a court to take cognizance of an offence after the expiry of the period of limitation if it is satisfied that the delay has been properly explained OR that it is necessary to do so in the interests of justice. While the statute uses 'or', if the court is satisfied that both conditions (1) and (2) are met, it certainly has the discretion to take cognizance. In a multiple-choice context, 'both the conditions' often implies that the presence of both would also satisfy the criteria for taking cognizance.

Question 20

On a declaration of forfeiture of a book by the State Government under Section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the application to set aside lies to the:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: High Court. As per Section 96 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an application to set aside a declaration of forfeiture of a book or newspaper made by the State Government under Section 95 lies exclusively to the High Court. This ensures a higher judicial review of such executive actions.

Question 21

Which of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: A person arrested by police officer without warrant shall be taken before a Magistrate without unnecessary delay.. Option (1) is correct as per Section 57 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which mandates that a person arrested without a warrant must be produced before a Magistrate without unnecessary delay, and in no case beyond 24 hours (excluding journey time). Option (2) is incorrect because a Magistrate can authorize detention beyond 24 hours under Section 167 CrPC. Option (3) is incorrect because a person arrested for a bailable offence is released on bail, which typically involves furnishing a bond or security, not 'without any bond or bail.'

Question 22

The effect of error in stating the required particulars in the charge, shall be regarded material under which of the following circumstances:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: When the accused is misled by the error.. Section 215 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provides that an error in stating the particulars in the charge is considered material only if the accused was actually misled by such error, leading to a failure of justice. The other options are not directly related to the materiality of an error in the charge itself.

Question 23

Under Section 428 of Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following period of detention undergone by the accused shall be set-off against the sentence of imprisonment in a case:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Period of detention undergone during investigation and trial of that case.. Section 428 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, allows for the set-off of the period of detention undergone by an accused person during the investigation, inquiry, or trial of that particular case against the sentence of imprisonment awarded to them. This provision ensures that the time spent in custody as an undertrial is accounted for in the final sentence.

Question 24

During the course of trial of a murder case, which of the following may be proved:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Recovery of the weapon of offence on basis of statement made by accused during investigation of another case.. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides an exception to the general rule that confessions made to a police officer are inadmissible. It states that when any fact is discovered in consequence of information received from a person accused of any offence, in the custody of a police officer, so much of such information as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered, may be proved. Option (2) describes a scenario where the recovery of a weapon (a fact) is made based on a statement by the accused, which could be admissible under Section 27, even if the statement was made during the investigation of another case, provided the discovered fact is relevant to the current murder trial. Options (1) and (3) are generally inadmissible under Sections 25 and 26 of the Evidence Act, respectively, as they involve confessions in police custody not leading to a discovery.

Question 25

The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 provides for making which of the following presumptions as special rule of evidence, until the contrary is provided:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: all the above. Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, lays down several presumptions. These include: (b) as to date (that every negotiable instrument bearing a date was made or drawn on such date), (d) as to time of transfer (that every transfer of a negotiable instrument was made before its maturity), and (f) as to stamp (that a lost promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque was duly stamped). Assuming option (1) intended to state the correct presumption regarding the date (i.e., 'was made or drawn on such date'), then all three specific options would be correct, making 'all the above' the appropriate answer.

Question 26

A document registered under the Registration Act, 1908 operates:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: from the time from which it would have commenced to operate, if no registration was required. According to Section 47 of the Registration Act, 1908, a registered document operates not from the date of its registration, but from the date it would have commenced to operate if registration were not required. This principle ensures that registration does not delay the effectiveness of the document.

Question 27

Under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, the sale, gift or bequest of Khatedari interests by a member of the Scheduled Caste in favour of a person, who is not a member of Scheduled Caste shall be:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: void. Section 42 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, explicitly prohibits the transfer (sale, gift, or bequest) of Khatedari interests by a member of a Scheduled Caste to a person who is not a member of a Scheduled Caste. Any such transfer is declared void to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

Question 28

Appeals from original decrees under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 is provided under:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 223. Section 223 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, specifically provides for appeals from original decrees passed under the Act.

Question 29

If an instrument comes within several descriptions in the Schedule to the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, where the duties chargeable are different, stamp duty is chargeable:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: with the highest of such duties. As per Section 6 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, when an instrument falls under multiple descriptions in the Schedule, and different duties are chargeable, the instrument must be charged with the highest of those duties. This rule prevents evasion of higher stamp duty by classifying an instrument under a description with lower duty.

Question 30

An instrument chargeable with the duty under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, unless such instrument is duly stamped:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: cannot be admitted in evidence for any purpose. Section 39 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, mandates that an instrument chargeable with stamp duty cannot be admitted in evidence for any purpose, nor can it be acted upon, registered, or authenticated, unless it is duly stamped. This provision ensures compliance with stamp duty requirements.

Question 31

Under the provisions of Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, the prescribed authority on the application of a bank cannot make an order against:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: tenant of the agriculturist. The Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, primarily deals with the recovery of loans from agriculturists, their heirs, legal representatives, and guarantors. A tenant of the agriculturist, in their capacity as a tenant, is generally not a party against whom the prescribed authority can make an order for the recovery of the agriculturist's debt under this Act.

Question 32

In a suit for partition and separation possession of joint family property or property owned jointly or in common by a plaintiff who is in joint possession of such property, if the valuable of plaintiff's share exceeds Rs. 10,000/-, the court fees payable in Rajasthan would be:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: fixed court fee of Rs. 200/-. In Rajasthan, for a suit for partition and separate possession of joint family property where the plaintiff is in joint possession, a fixed court fee is generally payable, irrespective of the value of the plaintiff's share. The specific amount of Rs. 200/- is a common fixed fee prescribed for such suits under the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961.

Question 33

Which provision of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961 provides for refund of full amount of fee where a suit is settled by any one of the modes provided under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 65-A. Section 65-A of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, specifically provides for the refund of the full amount of court fee paid when a suit is settled by any of the modes of alternative dispute resolution referred to in Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, such as arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement, or mediation.

Question 34

Under the provisions of Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property inherited by a female Hindu from her father or mother shall devolve, in absence of any son or daughter of the deceased (including the children of any pre-deceased son of daughter):

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Upon the heirs of deceased female Hindu's father. Section 15(2)(a) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, provides a special rule of succession for property inherited by a female Hindu from her parents. In the absence of her own children (including pre-deceased children's offspring), such property devolves upon the heirs of her father, not her husband or general heirs under Section 15(1).

Question 35

In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that under the Muslim Law a gift of immovable property fulfilling essential ingredients of a valid gift i.e. declaration of gift by donor, acceptance of gift by donee and delivery of possession, even if reduced into writing does not require

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Hafeeza Bibi and Others v. Shaikh Farid & Others (2011) 5 SCC 654. In the case of Hafeeza Bibi and Others v. Shaikh Farid & Others (2011), the Supreme Court clarified that a gift of immovable property under Muslim Law (Hiba), if it satisfies the three essential conditions of declaration by the donor, acceptance by the donee, and delivery of possession, does not require compulsory registration under the Registration Act, 1908, even if the transaction is reduced to writing.

Question 36

Part IX-B of the Constitution of India containing Articles 243ZH to 243ZT pertaining to the Cooperative Societies was inserted by:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011. Part IX-B of the Constitution of India, which deals with Cooperative Societies (Articles 243ZH to 243ZT), was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act, 2011.

Question 37

Whether a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956, can be cancelled by the adoptive father or mother or any other person?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No. Section 15 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, clearly states that a validly made adoption cannot be cancelled by the adoptive parents or any other person. Once an adoption is complete and valid, it creates a permanent legal relationship.

Question 38

Under which provision of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, power to stay execution of orders of lower court, has been conferred on the appellate authority?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 81. Section 81 of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, grants the appellate authority the power to stay the execution of orders passed by lower courts or authorities under the Act, pending the disposal of an appeal.

Question 39

Can a civil court adjudicate in a civil suit, upon any question relating to registration of a person in an electoral roll for a constituency, under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: No. Section 109 of the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, explicitly bars the jurisdiction of civil courts from entertaining any question relating to the preparation or revision of electoral rolls. Such matters are typically handled by election authorities or specific tribunals established for that purpose.

Question 40

Which provision of the Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009 deals with suits against Municipality or its officers?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: Section 304. Section 304 of the Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009, specifically lays down the provisions regarding the institution of suits against the Municipality or its officers, including the requirement of prior notice before filing such suits.

Question 41

Which of the following Statutes regulates the amount of legal practitioner's fee to be taxed as costs under a decree or order of a court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: General Rules (Civil), 1986. The amount of legal practitioner's fee to be taxed as costs under a decree or order of a court is generally regulated by the High Court's own rules, such as the General Rules (Civil), 1986, in Rajasthan. These rules provide detailed procedures and schedules for the taxation of costs.

Question 42

Look, that man is ............ a photo of you.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 43

Someone has ............ my books.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 44

Slow and steady ............ the race.

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 45

इनमें से निषेधवाचक वाक्य है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 46

निम्नांकित में से शुद्ध वाक्य है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 47

'उंगलियों पर नचाना' मुहावरे का अर्थ-बोधक वाक्य है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 48

'मुट्ठी गरम करना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 49

किस युग्म में विलोमता नहीं है?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 50

किस शब्द की वर्तनी दोषपूर्ण है?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 51

सत्+जन की संधि है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 52

'जानने की इच्छा रखने वाला' के लिये उपयुक्त शब्द है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 53

भीतर से शत्रुता और ऊपर से मीठी बात करने के भाव को व्यक्त करने वाली लोकोक्ति है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 54

'जिन ढूंढों सिर पाइयाँ गहरे पानी पैठ' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 55

उत्+हार की संधि है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 56

'कामचोर' में समास हैः

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 57

निम्नांकित में से 'पुत्री' शब्द का पर्यायवाची नहीं है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 58

'सृजन' शब्द का विलोम है:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 59

A material alteration in a negotiable instrument without the consent of the 'endorser, renders the negotiable instrument as:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 60

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध शब्द हैः

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 61

Which of the following statement is not correct?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 62

The report of a Medical Officer stating the injuries of the victim is:

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 63

Under which of the following conditions, a leading question may be asked during examination-in-chief with the permission of the Court?

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Question 64

Statement A: The presumption under Section 113-A of Indian Evidence Act is not attracted if the marriage took place more than seven years prior to the suicide of woman, even if the cruelty is established by prosecution. Statement B: By the introduction of Section 113-A of Indian Evidence Act, the pr

Accepted Answer

Correct Option: .

Rajasthan Pre 2016

100 Questions Available

Rajasthan Pre 2016

100 Questions Available

Question 1: In the event of death of the person referred to in sub-clause (i) of Section 2(1) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, in case of premises let out

Question 2: The authority competent under Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 to decide a dispute about ownership of a tree and a right to remove it is:

Question 3: An arbitration agreement providing for arbitration by four arbitrators is, under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, to be construed as an agree

Question 4: Specific performance of any contract may be ordered where:

Question 5: A partnership firm is:

Question 6: In view of Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a lease of immovable property is a transfer of:

Question 7: Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court of India shall be binding on all courts within the terr

Question 8: A lease of immovable property for any term exceeding one year can be made:

Question 9: Provision of Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 for extension of prescribed period are applicable to:

Question 10: A suit may be defeated due to:

Question 11: Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer:

Question 12: The Commissioner appointed under the provisions of Order XVIII of the Code of Civil Procedure for the purpose of recording of evidence cannot:

Question 13: 'Premises' under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 does not include:

Question 14: 'Dominant heritages' under the Easements Act, 1882 means:

Question 15: 'Lok Adalats' are organised under which legislation?

Question 16: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to:

Question 17: The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is not applicable to:

Question 18: The special provisions as to payment of compensation on structured formula basis under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 are contained in:

Question 19: Any court may take cognizance of an offence after expiry of the period of limitation, if it is satisfied on the facts and circumstances of the case th

Question 20: On a declaration of forfeiture of a book by the State Government under Section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the application to set aside lies

Question 21: Which of the following is correct?

Question 22: The effect of error in stating the required particulars in the charge, shall be regarded material under which of the following circumstances:

Question 23: Under Section 428 of Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following period of detention undergone by the accused shall be set-off against the sent

Question 24: During the course of trial of a murder case, which of the following may be proved:

Question 25: The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 provides for making which of the following presumptions as special rule of evidence, until the contrary is provide

Question 26: A document registered under the Registration Act, 1908 operates:

Question 27: Under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, the sale, gift or bequest of Khatedari interests by a member of the Scheduled Caste in favour of a person, who

Question 28: Appeals from original decrees under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 is provided under:

Question 29: If an instrument comes within several descriptions in the Schedule to the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, where the duties chargeable are different, stamp

Question 30: An instrument chargeable with the duty under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, unless such instrument is duly stamped:

Question 31: Under the provisions of Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, the prescribed authority on the application of a

Question 32: In a suit for partition and separation possession of joint family property or property owned jointly or in common by a plaintiff who is in joint posse

Question 33: Which provision of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961 provides for refund of full amount of fee where a suit is settled by any one

Question 34: Under the provisions of Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property inherited by a female Hindu from her father or mother shall devolve, in absence of an

Question 35: In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that under the Muslim Law a gift of immovable property fulfilling essential ingredients of

Question 36: Part IX-B of the Constitution of India containing Articles 243ZH to 243ZT pertaining to the Cooperative Societies was inserted by:

Question 37: Whether a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956, can be cancelled by the adoptive father or mother or any other person?

Question 38: Under which provision of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, power to stay execution of orders of lower court, has been conferred on the appellate a

Question 39: Can a civil court adjudicate in a civil suit, upon any question relating to registration of a person in an electoral roll for a constituency, under th

Question 40: Which provision of the Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009 deals with suits against Municipality or its officers?

Question 41: Which of the following Statutes regulates the amount of legal practitioner's fee to be taxed as costs under a decree or order of a court?

Question 42: Look, that man is ............ a photo of you.

Question 43: Someone has ............ my books.

Question 44: Slow and steady ............ the race.

Question 45: इनमें से निषेधवाचक वाक्य है:

Question 46: निम्नांकित में से शुद्ध वाक्य है:

Question 47: 'उंगलियों पर नचाना' मुहावरे का अर्थ-बोधक वाक्य है:

Question 48: 'मुट्ठी गरम करना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है:

Question 49: किस युग्म में विलोमता नहीं है?

Question 50: किस शब्द की वर्तनी दोषपूर्ण है?